Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

This quiz on ICSE Class 12 Biology – Chapter 5: Molecular Basis of Inheritance is designed to help students strengthen their understanding of the fundamental processes that govern heredity and variation. It covers key concepts such as the structure and packaging of DNA, semi-conservative replication, genetic code, transcription, translation, and regulation of gene expression. The questions will also assess knowledge of mutations, operon models, and the experimental proofs that established DNA as the genetic material. Through a variety of conceptual and application-based questions, this quiz aims to enhance analytical thinking and reinforce the core principles of molecular genetics essential for board examinations.

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Category: CONCLUSION

1. In the context of the rice genome project, what was the primary purpose of identifying Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs)?

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Category: CONCLUSION

2. Which aspect of the International Rice Genome Sequencing Project (IRGSP) demonstrates its unique advantage in tackling large-scale genomic studies compared to single-nation efforts?

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Category: CONCLUSION

3. If approximately 3.5% of the rice genome has been completed, spanning 15 Mb, and another 3-5% is in progress, what is the estimated total size of the rice genome based on this data?

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Category: SEQUENCING, FINISHING AND ANNOTATION

4. If 3.5% of the rice genome (430 Mb) has been sequenced, what is the approximate size of the sequenced portion in megabases?

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Category: SEQUENCING, FINISHING AND ANNOTATION

5. Based on the estimated gene count in the rice genome, if 15% of the 37,544 genes are involved in stress tolerance, approximately how many genes would be responsible for this trait?

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Category: SEQUENCING, FINISHING AND ANNOTATION

6. The Rice Genome Research Programme used a shotgun approach to sequence PAC/BAC clones. If a BAC clone of size 150 kb is fragmented into subclones of 2 kb each for sequencing, and the desired coverage is 8x, how many subclones need to be sequenced?

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Category: RICE GENOME PROJECT

7. How many genes are estimated to be present in the rice genome based on current findings?

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Category: RICE GENOME PROJECT

8. In the shotgun sequencing approach used by the Rice Genome Research Programme, what is the typical insert size for creating a shotgun library?

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Category: RICE GENOME PROJECT

9. Which country was NOT part of the International Rice Genome Sequencing Project (IRGSP) collaboration?

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Category: CONCLUSION

10. What is one major implication of the rice genome project on agricultural biotechnology?

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Category: CONCLUSION

11. Which of the following is the primary method used for sequencing the rice genome in the RGP?

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Category: CONCLUSION

12. How many nations are involved in the Rice Genome Research Programme (RGP)?

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Category: SEQUENCING, FINISHING AND ANNOTATION

13. How many genes are estimated to be present in the rice genome based on the International Rice Genome Sequencing Project (IRGSP)?

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Category: SEQUENCING, FINISHING AND ANNOTATION

14. Approximately what percentage of the rice genome is estimated to consist of repetitive DNA?

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Category: SEQUENCING, FINISHING AND ANNOTATION

15. Which technique was primarily used by the Rice Genome Research Programme (Japan) to sequence PAC/BAC clones?

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Category: RICE GENOME PROJECT

16. Why is functional genomics important for rice research as highlighted in the syllabus?

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Category: RICE GENOME PROJECT

17. Which method was primarily used by the Rice Genome Research Programme (Japan) for sequencing the rice genome?

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Category: RICE GENOME PROJECT

18. What is the estimated size of the rice genome Oryza sativa according to the International Rice Genome Sequencing Project (IRGSP)?

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Category: CONCLUSION

19. What percentage of the rice genome has been completed as per the syllabus?

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Category: CONCLUSION

20. How many nations are involved in the collaborative effort to sequence the rice genome?

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Category: CONCLUSION

21. What is the approximate size of the rice genome?

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Category: SEQUENCING, FINISHING AND ANNOTATION

22. Which institution was responsible for sequencing chromosome 11 in the rice genome project?

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Category: SEQUENCING, FINISHING AND ANNOTATION

23. What is the estimated size range of the rice genome (Oryza sativa)?

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Category: SEQUENCING, FINISHING AND ANNOTATION

24. Which sequencing approach was used by the Rice Genome Research Programme (Japan) for sequencing PAC or BAC clones?

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Category: RICE GENOME PROJECT

25. Which technique was used by the Rice Genome Research Programme (RGP; Japan) for sequencing the rice genome?

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Category: RICE GENOME PROJECT

26. Which country was NOT part of the International Rice Genome Sequencing Project (IRGSP) collaboration?

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Category: RICE GENOME PROJECT

27. What is the estimated size of the rice genome (Oryza sativa)?

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Category: Ethical Issues

28. A DNA fingerprinting test incorrectly identifies an innocent person as a suspect in a crime due to contamination of the sample. Which ethical concern is most relevant to this error?

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Category: Ethical Issues

29. An insurance company denies coverage to an individual after accessing their DNA profile, which indicates a predisposition to a hereditary disease. Which ethical issue is most directly illustrated by this situation?

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Category: Ethical Issues

30. A research study collects DNA samples from participants for genetic analysis without explicitly informing them about potential risks of data breaches. Which ethical principle is primarily violated in this scenario?

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Category: Conservation genetics

31. When using PCR-amplified VNTR markers to monitor a reintroduced population, which finding would most concern conservation geneticists?

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Category: Conservation genetics

32. A conservation biologist observes different banding patterns in Southern blots of DNA from two geographically isolated groups of an endangered mammal. What conclusion can be drawn about their population structure?

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Category: Conservation genetics

33. In a population of endangered species, DNA fingerprinting revealed that 40% of individuals share identical VNTR patterns at a specific locus. What does this indicate about the genetic diversity of the population?

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Category: Paternity disputes

34. Why do non-matching bands appear in a child’s DNA fingerprint compared to the parents’ fingerprints?

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Category: Paternity disputes

35. In a paternity dispute case, a single cell sample is collected. Which step ensures sufficient DNA for fingerprinting despite the minimal sample size?

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Category: Paternity disputes

36. A child's DNA fingerprint is compared with that of a potential father and mother. The child has 8 bands, of which 3 match exclusively with the mother. How many bands must match with the potential father to confirm paternity?

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Category: Forensics

37. Why do restriction endonucleases produce varying fragment lengths when digesting DNA from different individuals?

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Category: Forensics

38. In a forensic investigation, a degraded DNA sample yields insufficient material for analysis. Which technique can be used to amplify the DNA from such a sample before proceeding with restriction digestion?

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Category: Forensics

39. What is the purpose of using VNTR probes in DNA fingerprinting after gel electrophoresis?

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Category: Applications

40. What ethical concern arises when DNA fingerprinting is used for determining genetic predispositions to inherited diseases?

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Category: Applications

41. Why is polymerase chain reaction (PCR) essential in increasing the sensitivity of DNA fingerprinting analysis?

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Category: Applications

42. During DNA fingerprinting, after hybridization with a labeled VNTR probe, what is the purpose of using X-ray film in autoradiography?

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Category: Probe hybridisation

43. Which of the following best explains why PCR is used before probe hybridisation in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Probe hybridisation

44. In DNA fingerprinting, what would be the consequence if the transfer step in Southern blotting fails before probe hybridisation?

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Category: Probe hybridisation

45. During DNA fingerprinting, why is the probe hybridisation step crucial for identifying unique banding patterns?

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Category: Gel electrophoresis

46. How does Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) enhance the sensitivity of DNA fingerprinting when analyzing minute quantities of DNA?

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Category: Gel electrophoresis

47. A researcher observes faint bands on an autoradiogram after performing DNA fingerprinting. Which of the following could explain this result if the experimental procedure was otherwise correct?

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Category: Gel electrophoresis

48. In DNA fingerprinting, a sample of DNA fragments is separated by gel electrophoresis and then transferred to a nylon membrane via Southern blotting. If the DNA fragments are not properly denatured before transfer, what would most likely happen during hybridization with a VNTR probe?

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Category: Restriction enzymes

49. After gel electrophoresis in DNA fingerprinting, why is autoradiography necessary to visualize the DNA bands?

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Category: Restriction enzymes

50. In DNA fingerprinting, why are VNTR probes used during hybridization instead of probes for coding sequences?

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Category: Restriction enzymes

51. A DNA sample is digested with HindIII restriction enzyme, which cuts at the sequence AAGCTT. If the original DNA fragment is 10000 base pairs long and contains 5 recognition sites for HindIII, what will be the total number of fragments after digestion?

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Category: Technique

52. In DNA fingerprinting, what does the X-ray film reveal after autoradiography?

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Category: Technique

53. Why is polymerase chain reaction ($PCR$) used in DNA fingerprinting before restriction digestion?

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Category: Technique

54. What is the primary purpose of hybridizing DNA fragments with a labeled VNTR probe in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Polymorphism

55. Which restriction enzyme property is critical for generating DNA fingerprints by cleaving at polymorphic sites?

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Category: Polymorphism

56. In a population, if the frequency of an allele at a specific STR locus is 0.2, what is the expected heterozygosity at this locus assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

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Category: Polymorphism

57. Which type of genetic polymorphism is most commonly used for forensic DNA fingerprinting due to its high variability and stability?

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Category: Basis

58. A forensic investigator observes weak hybridization signals in a DNA fingerprint. What adjustment would most likely enhance the signal detection?

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Category: Basis

59. In forensic DNA profiling, what is the primary advantage of using Short Tandem Repeats (STRs) over Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms (RFLPs)?

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Category: Basis

60. Which of the following best explains why VNTR regions are highly useful in DNA fingerprinting despite being non-coding?

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Category: DNA Fingerprinting

61. A forensic team needs to analyze a degraded DNA sample from a crime scene. Which modification to standard PCR would best help obtain usable DNA fingerprints?

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Category: DNA Fingerprinting

62. During Southern blotting in DNA fingerprinting, what would happen if the nylon membrane incubation temperature during hybridization was set too high?

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Category: DNA Fingerprinting

63. In a DNA fingerprinting analysis, if two samples have identical band patterns on an autoradiograph but differ in one VNTR region that was not probed, what is the most likely explanation?

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Category: Ethical Issues

64. How might insurance companies misuse DNA fingerprinting data?

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Category: Ethical Issues

65. Why is obtaining informed consent crucial before DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Ethical Issues

66. What is a major ethical concern related to DNA fingerprinting regarding personal data?

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Category: Conservation genetics

67. How does DNA fingerprinting assist in conservation genetics for endangered species?

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Category: Conservation genetics

68. During the process of DNA fingerprinting, which step involves transferring separated DNA fragments onto a membrane for hybridization?

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Category: Conservation genetics

69. Which of the following best describes Variable Number Tandem Repeats (VNTR) in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Paternity disputes

70. Which enzyme is typically used in DNA fingerprinting to cut DNA at specific recognition sites?

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Category: Paternity disputes

71. If a child's DNA fingerprint shows bands that match both the mother and alleged father in a paternity test, what does this indicate?

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Category: Paternity disputes

72. In DNA fingerprinting for paternity disputes, what is the purpose of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)?

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Category: Forensics

73. What is the purpose of using labeled VNTR probes in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Forensics

74. Which of the following scenarios can be resolved using DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Forensics

75. In DNA fingerprinting, which enzyme is primarily used to cut DNA into specific fragments?

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Category: Applications

76. During Southern blotting, what is the role of radioactive DNA probes?

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Category: Applications

77. What is the primary purpose of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Applications

78. In which scenario would DNA fingerprinting be LEAST likely to provide accurate results?

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Category: Probe hybridisation

79. Why are VNTR sequences important in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Probe hybridisation

80. Which of the following is NOT an application of DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Probe hybridisation

81. What is the purpose of using radioactive DNA probes in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Gel electrophoresis

82. Why is the banding pattern obtained from gel electrophoresis unique to an individual in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Gel electrophoresis

83. After gel electrophoresis, how are the separated DNA fragments typically visualized?

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Category: Gel electrophoresis

84. In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments are separated based on which of the following properties?

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Category: Restriction enzymes

85. What is the purpose of using VNTR probes in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Restriction enzymes

86. During the separation of DNA fragments by gel electrophoresis, what property determines their movement through the gel?

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Category: Restriction enzymes

87. In DNA fingerprinting, which enzyme is primarily used to cut DNA into fragments at specific recognition sites?

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Category: Technique

88. DNA fingerprinting can be used for all the following applications EXCEPT:

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Category: Technique

89. Which of the following steps involves transferring separated DNA fragments onto a nylon membrane during DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Technique

90. What is the primary reason that repetitive DNA sequences are used in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Polymorphism

91. In DNA fingerprinting, which technique is primarily used to amplify polymorphic regions like VNTRs before gel electrophoresis?

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Category: Polymorphism

92. What is the typical length of Short Tandem Repeat (STR) sequences used in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Polymorphism

93. Which of the following best describes a Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP)?

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Category: Basis

94. In Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) analysis, what is the purpose of using restriction enzymes?

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Category: Basis

95. Short Tandem Repeats (STRs) differ from Variable Number Tandem Repeats (VNTRs) in which way?

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Category: Basis

96. Which of the following statements about Variable Number Tandem Repeats (VNTRs) is correct?

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Category: DNA Fingerprinting

97. What does the dark band pattern observed in autoradiography during DNA fingerprinting represent?

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Category: DNA Fingerprinting

98. Why is restriction digestion a critical step in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: DNA Fingerprinting

99. Which of the following best describes the role of VNTRs in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Ethical Issues

100. What does ELSI stand for in the context of DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Ethical Issues

101. Why is informed consent important in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Ethical Issues

102. What is one of the major ethical concerns related to DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Conservation genetics

103. What is the purpose of Southern blotting in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Conservation genetics

104. Which application of DNA fingerprinting is crucial for conserving endangered species?

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Category: Conservation genetics

105. What are Variable Number Tandem Repeats (VNTRs) used for in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Paternity disputes

106. DNA fingerprinting can be used to resolve paternity disputes because:

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Category: Paternity disputes

107. Which step in DNA fingerprinting involves making many copies of DNA?

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Category: Paternity disputes

108. What are the nucleotide sequences used in DNA fingerprinting known as?

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Category: Forensics

109. Which technique is used to detect radioactive probes hybridized to DNA fragments in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Forensics

110. If a DNA sample undergoes 5 cycles of PCR amplification, how many copies of the original DNA will be produced?

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Category: Forensics

111. What are the short repetitive DNA sequences used in DNA fingerprinting called?

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Category: Applications

112. In which scenario can DNA fingerprinting be used to determine relationships?

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Category: Applications

113. Which technique is used to make many copies of DNA during DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Applications

114. What is one primary application of DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Probe hybridisation

115. What type of sequences do VNTR probes target in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Probe hybridisation

116. Which of the following is NOT an application of DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Probe hybridisation

117. What is the purpose of using radioactive DNA probes in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Gel electrophoresis

118. How are separated DNA fragments typically visualized after gel electrophoresis?

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Category: Gel electrophoresis

119. What is the most commonly used gel matrix for separating DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis?

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Category: Gel electrophoresis

120. Which factor primarily determines how far DNA fragments travel during gel electrophoresis?

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Category: Restriction enzymes

121. What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Restriction enzymes

122. In DNA fingerprinting, where is the DNA extracted from?

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Category: Restriction enzymes

123. What is the primary function of restriction enzymes in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Technique

124. In DNA fingerprinting, why is gel electrophoresis used after restriction digestion?

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Category: Technique

125. Which type of DNA shows high polymorphism and forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Technique

126. What is the primary purpose of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Polymorphism

127. Which step in DNA fingerprinting amplifies specific polymorphic regions like STRs?

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Category: Polymorphism

128. What are Short Tandem Repeats (STRs) used for in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Polymorphism

129. Which of the following describes a polymorphism in DNA?

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Category: Basis

130. In the DNA fingerprinting technique, what is the purpose of Southern blotting?

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Category: Basis

131. Which type of repetitive DNA sequence is typically 10-60 base pairs long and used in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: Basis

132. What is the primary reason for the uniqueness of DNA fingerprints among individuals?

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Category: DNA Fingerprinting

133. Which of the following is the first step in the process of DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: DNA Fingerprinting

134. In DNA fingerprinting, which technique is used to detect radioactive probes on DNA fragments?

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Category: DNA Fingerprinting

135. What is the full form of VNTR in DNA fingerprinting?

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Category: THE HUMAN GENOME PROJECT (HGP)

136. A key ethical concern arising from the Human Genome Project is the potential misuse of genetic information, such as:

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Category: THE HUMAN GENOME PROJECT (HGP)

137. Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNPs) identified in the Human Genome Project are significant because they:

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Category: THE HUMAN GENOME PROJECT (HGP)

138. During the Human Genome Project, which of the following strategies was primarily used to sequence large DNA fragments by breaking them into smaller pieces and cloning them into bacterial or yeast vectors?

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Category: THE HUMAN GENOME PROJECT (HGP)

139. Approximately what percentage of the human genome codes for proteins?

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Category: THE HUMAN GENOME PROJECT (HGP)

140. Which of the following was NOT a goal of the Human Genome Project?

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Category: THE HUMAN GENOME PROJECT (HGP)

141. What was the primary purpose of using BAC (Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes) and YAC (Yeast Artificial Chromosomes) in the Human Genome Project?

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Category: THE HUMAN GENOME PROJECT (HGP)

142. Approximately what percentage of nucleotide bases are the same in all humans according to the Human Genome Project?

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Category: THE HUMAN GENOME PROJECT (HGP)

143. Which vector was used for cloning DNA fragments in bacteria during the Human Genome Project?

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Category: THE HUMAN GENOME PROJECT (HGP)

144. Which of the following was NOT a goal of the Human Genome Project?

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Category: Operon Concept for Transcriptional Regulation

145. In the context of feedback repression in bacterial gene regulation, what is the function of a co-repressor?

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Category: Operon Concept for Transcriptional Regulation

146. Which of the following best describes the nature of the mRNA transcribed from the lac operon in $E. coli$?

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Category: Operon Concept for Transcriptional Regulation

147. In the lac operon of $E. coli$, what is the role of the repressor protein when lactose is absent in the medium?

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Category: Regulation of Gene Expression

148. In the context of the tryptophan operon, what happens when tryptophan levels are low?

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Category: Regulation of Gene Expression

149. Which of the following best describes the effect of excess histidine on $E. coli$ cells?

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Category: Regulation of Gene Expression

150. In the lac operon of $E. coli$, what is the role of the regulator gene?

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Category: GENE EXPRESSION IN PROKARYOTES

151. Which of the following best describes constitutive genes in prokaryotes?

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Category: GENE EXPRESSION IN PROKARYOTES

152. What is the role of tryptophan in the regulation of the trp operon in E. coli?

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Category: GENE EXPRESSION IN PROKARYOTES

153. In the absence of lactose, how does the lac operon in E. coli regulate gene expression?

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Category: Operon Concept for Transcriptional Regulation

154. In the $trp$ operon, excess tryptophan functions as:

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Category: Operon Concept for Transcriptional Regulation

155. What happens when lactose is present in the environment of $E. coli$ cells with a functional $lac$ operon?

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Category: Operon Concept for Transcriptional Regulation

156. Which component of the $lac$ operon is responsible for encoding the repressor protein?

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Category: Regulation of Gene Expression

157. According to the operon model proposed by Jacob and Monod, what is the role of the operator gene in the regulation of gene expression?

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Category: Regulation of Gene Expression

158. In feedback repression, how does the presence of an excess metabolite affect gene expression in prokaryotes like $E. coli$?

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Category: Regulation of Gene Expression

159. In $E. coli$, the production of $\beta$-galactosidase is induced by lactose. What is the primary reason for the increase in enzyme production when lactose is added to the medium?

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Category: GENE EXPRESSION IN PROKARYOTES

160. Which of the following best describes constitutive genes?

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Category: GENE EXPRESSION IN PROKARYOTES

161. What role does a co-repressor play in feedback repression?

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Category: GENE EXPRESSION IN PROKARYOTES

162. In the lac operon, what happens when lactose is present in the medium?

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Category: Operon Concept for Transcriptional Regulation

163. What are constitutive genes?

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Category: Operon Concept for Transcriptional Regulation

164. Which of the following best describes an inducer in the context of the $lac$ operon?

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Category: Operon Concept for Transcriptional Regulation

165. What is the role of the operator gene in the $lac$ operon?

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Category: Regulation of Gene Expression

166. Which of the following best describes constitutive genes?

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Category: Regulation of Gene Expression

167. What occurs when histidine is externally supplied to E. coli in excess?

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Category: Regulation of Gene Expression

168. What happens when lactose is added to E. coli cells?

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Category: GENE EXPRESSION IN PROKARYOTES

169. Which of the following is an example of a constitutive gene?

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Category: GENE EXPRESSION IN PROKARYOTES

170. What occurs in E. coli when histidine is supplied externally in excess?

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Category: GENE EXPRESSION IN PROKARYOTES

171. What happens when lactose is introduced to E. coli cells that were previously not exposed to it?

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Category: STRUCTURE OF EUKARYOTIC CHROMOSOME (PACKAGING OF DNA HELIX)

172. Which of the following best describes the relationship between chromatin packing and transcriptional activity?

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Category: STRUCTURE OF EUKARYOTIC CHROMOSOME (PACKAGING OF DNA HELIX)

173. During chromatin condensation, the solenoid structure is formed by:

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Category: STRUCTURE OF EUKARYOTIC CHROMOSOME (PACKAGING OF DNA HELIX)

174. Which of the following statements regarding the nucleosome core particle is correct?

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Category: STRUCTURE OF EUKARYOTIC CHROMOSOME (PACKAGING OF DNA HELIX)

175. What distinguishes euchromatin from heterochromatin in eukaryotic chromosomes?

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Category: STRUCTURE OF EUKARYOTIC CHROMOSOME (PACKAGING OF DNA HELIX)

176. Which form of DNA has a left-handed helical structure and exhibits a zig-zag pattern in its phosphate backbone?

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Category: STRUCTURE OF EUKARYOTIC CHROMOSOME (PACKAGING OF DNA HELIX)

177. Which histone protein is NOT part of the histone octamer in a nucleosome?

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Category: STRUCTURE OF EUKARYOTIC CHROMOSOME (PACKAGING OF DNA HELIX)

178. Which form of DNA is left-handed and has a zig-zag phosphate backbone arrangement?

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Category: STRUCTURE OF EUKARYOTIC CHROMOSOME (PACKAGING OF DNA HELIX)

179. What is the width of the solenoid structure formed by coiling the 10 nm nucleosome fiber?

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Category: STRUCTURE OF EUKARYOTIC CHROMOSOME (PACKAGING OF DNA HELIX)

180. Which histone protein is NOT part of the histone octamer in a nucleosome?

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Category: Mutations and Protein Structure

181. Which antibiotic specifically inhibits the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to the ribosome during protein synthesis?

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Category: Mutations and Protein Structure

182. In a gene encoding a protein, a single nucleotide change converts a codon from UAC to UAG. What is the most likely consequence of this mutation?

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Category: Mutations and Protein Structure

183. A DNA sequence undergoes a mutation where a single cytosine base is inserted after the third nucleotide in the coding strand. If the original sequence was $5'$-ATG CTA GCA-3', what will be the effect on the translated protein?

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Category: Mechanism of Translation (Protein Synthesis)

184. What is the consequence when a ribosome encounters a termination codon (UAA, UAG, or UGA) during translation?

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Category: Mechanism of Translation (Protein Synthesis)

185. During the initiation of protein synthesis in prokaryotes, which of the following events occurs first?

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Category: Mechanism of Translation (Protein Synthesis)

186. Which of the following correctly describes the role of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase in protein synthesis?

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Category: Mechanism of mRNA Processing in Eukaryotes

187. If the 5' cap of a eukaryotic mRNA is chemically removed after processing but before translation, which of the following outcomes is expected?

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Category: Mechanism of mRNA Processing in Eukaryotes

188. A mutation changes the consensus sequence at the 5' splice site of an intron from GU to AU. What is the most likely consequence on mRNA processing?

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Category: Mechanism of mRNA Processing in Eukaryotes

189. A researcher observes that a eukaryotic mRNA lacks the poly(A) tail but has a 5' cap. Which of the following processes was most likely disrupted during mRNA processing?

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Category: Post-transcriptional Processing of Newly Formed mRNA

190. A mutation alters the consensus sequence at the 5’ splice site of an intron in a eukaryotic gene. What is the expected outcome?

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Category: Post-transcriptional Processing of Newly Formed mRNA

191. If a researcher experimentally removes the poly-A tail from mature eukaryotic mRNA, what is the most likely consequence?

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Category: Post-transcriptional Processing of Newly Formed mRNA

192. Which of the following statements about eukaryotic mRNA processing is INCORRECT?

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Category: CENTRAL DOGMA

193. Which enzyme is essential for retroviruses to convert their RNA genome into DNA during infection?

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Category: CENTRAL DOGMA

194. Which of the following codons serves as both the start codon for protein synthesis and codes for methionine in most organisms?

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Category: CENTRAL DOGMA

195. In eukaryotic cells, which RNA polymerase is primarily responsible for transcribing mRNA from DNA templates?

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Category: Mutations and Protein Structure

196. Which antibiotic inhibits the formation of peptide bonds during bacterial protein synthesis?

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Category: Mutations and Protein Structure

197. A deletion of two nucleotides occurs in the coding region of a gene. How will this affect the resulting polypeptide?

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Category: Mutations and Protein Structure

198. A mutation changes the codon GAA to GUA in the $\beta$-globin gene of hemoglobin. Which of the following best describes the likely effect on the protein produced?

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Category: Mechanism of Translation (Protein Synthesis)

199. Which of the following codons signals the termination of protein synthesis in translation?

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Category: Mechanism of Translation (Protein Synthesis)

200. In prokaryotes, which modified amino acid initiates the polypeptide chain during translation?

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Category: Mechanism of Translation (Protein Synthesis)

201. Which enzyme is responsible for attaching the correct amino acid to its corresponding tRNA during translation?

202 / 913

Category: Mechanism of mRNA Processing in Eukaryotes

202. Which feature is unique to eukaryotic mRNA compared to prokaryotic mRNA?

203 / 913

Category: Mechanism of mRNA Processing in Eukaryotes

203. Which of the following sequences are removed during the splicing of hnRNA to form mature mRNA?

204 / 913

Category: Mechanism of mRNA Processing in Eukaryotes

204. What is the primary function of the 5' methylated guanine cap added to eukaryotic mRNA?

205 / 913

Category: Post-transcriptional Processing of Newly Formed mRNA

205. Why does prokaryotic mRNA not require post-transcriptional processing like eukaryotic mRNA?

206 / 913

Category: Post-transcriptional Processing of Newly Formed mRNA

206. Which of the following modifications is added to the 5' end of eukaryotic mRNA to enhance stability and facilitate ribosome binding?

207 / 913

Category: Post-transcriptional Processing of Newly Formed mRNA

207. What is the primary function of splicing during mRNA processing?

208 / 913

Category: CENTRAL DOGMA

208. Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme found in which type of organisms?

209 / 913

Category: CENTRAL DOGMA

209. Which property of the genetic code states that a single codon specifies only one amino acid?

210 / 913

Category: CENTRAL DOGMA

210. Which of the following enzymes is responsible for synthesizing mRNA in eukaryotes?

211 / 913

Category: Mutations and Protein Structure

211. In sickle cell anemia, what type of mutation causes the $\beta$-chain of hemoglobin to have an incorrect amino acid sequence?

212 / 913

Category: Mutations and Protein Structure

212. Which antibiotic inhibits the formation of peptide bonds during protein synthesis in bacteria?

213 / 913

Category: Mutations and Protein Structure

213. What type of mutation occurs when a purine is replaced by another purine or a pyrimidine by another pyrimidine?

214 / 913

Category: Mechanism of Translation (Protein Synthesis)

214. Which of the following codons signals the termination of protein synthesis?

215 / 913

Category: Mechanism of Translation (Protein Synthesis)

215. At which site on the ribosome does the initiating tRNA (carrying formyl methionine in prokaryotes) bind during translation?

216 / 913

Category: Mechanism of Translation (Protein Synthesis)

216. Which enzyme is responsible for activating amino acids during the process of translation?

217 / 913

Category: Mechanism of mRNA Processing in Eukaryotes

217. Why is a poly-A tail added to eukaryotic mRNA?

218 / 913

Category: Mechanism of mRNA Processing in Eukaryotes

218. Which molecule is added to the 5' end of eukaryotic hnRNA during capping?

219 / 913

Category: Mechanism of mRNA Processing in Eukaryotes

219. What is the primary function of splicing in eukaryotic mRNA processing?

220 / 913

Category: Post-transcriptional Processing of Newly Formed mRNA

220. What is added to the 3' end of eukaryotic mRNA during tailing?

221 / 913

Category: Post-transcriptional Processing of Newly Formed mRNA

221. What is the purpose of splicing in eukaryotic mRNA processing?

222 / 913

Category: Post-transcriptional Processing of Newly Formed mRNA

222. In eukaryotic mRNA, what is added at the 5' end during post-transcriptional processing?

223 / 913

Category: CENTRAL DOGMA

223. Which of the following codons serves as the initiation codon for protein synthesis?

224 / 913

Category: CENTRAL DOGMA

224. Which enzyme synthesizes mRNA from a DNA template in eukaryotes?

225 / 913

Category: CENTRAL DOGMA

225. What is the correct sequence of the central dogma of molecular biology?

226 / 913

Category: Errors in DNA Replication and its Repair

226. If a misincorporated nucleotide is detected during DNA replication, which enzymatic activity of DNA polymerase ensures its removal and replacement with the correct nucleotide?

227 / 913

Category: Errors in DNA Replication and its Repair

227. UV radiation causes a pyrimidine dimer formation in a DNA strand. Which enzyme is responsible for removing the damaged segment before ligase joins the correct nucleotides?

228 / 913

Category: Errors in DNA Replication and its Repair

228. A bacterial genome consists of 5 million base pairs. If the initial error rate during DNA replication is 3 errors per 100,000 base pairs and proofreading reduces it to 1 error per 1 billion base pairs, what is the total reduction in errors due to proofreading?

229 / 913

Category: Mechanism of DNA Replication

229. During DNA replication, which enzyme is responsible for relieving the torsional strain generated by the unwinding of the DNA helix?

230 / 913

Category: Mechanism of DNA Replication

230. Which of the following statements about DNA polymerase is correct?

231 / 913

Category: Mechanism of DNA Replication

231. In the Meselson and Stahl experiment, if the DNA after two generations in $^{14}N$ medium is subjected to density gradient centrifugation, what would be the observed band pattern?

232 / 913

Category: REPLICATION OF DNA

232. Which enzyme is responsible for removing defective segments of DNA during excision repair and replacing them with the correct sequence?

233 / 913

Category: REPLICATION OF DNA

233. How does the number of origins of replication differ between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

234 / 913

Category: REPLICATION OF DNA

234. In semi-conservative replication of DNA, which enzyme is responsible for synthesizing the new strand by adding nucleotides to the $3'$-OH end of the growing DNA chain?

235 / 913

Category: Errors in DNA Replication and its Repair

235. What role does DNA polymerase play during DNA replication to ensure accuracy?

236 / 913

Category: Errors in DNA Replication and its Repair

236. Which enzyme is responsible for joining the corrected DNA segment after excision repair removes damaged bases like pyrimidine dimers?

237 / 913

Category: Errors in DNA Replication and its Repair

237. If the initial error rate in DNA replication is $3 \times 10^{-5}$ and the final error rate is $1 \times 10^{-9}$, what is the reduction factor in errors due to DNA repair mechanisms?

238 / 913

Category: Mechanism of DNA Replication

238. Why is the lagging strand synthesized discontinuously as Okazaki fragments?

239 / 913

Category: Mechanism of DNA Replication

239. In the Meselson-Stahl experiment, which nitrogen isotope was used to confirm semi-conservative DNA replication?

240 / 913

Category: Mechanism of DNA Replication

240. Which enzyme is responsible for relieving the torsional strain generated during the unwinding of the DNA double helix?

241 / 913

Category: REPLICATION OF DNA

241. How do the origins of replication differ between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

242 / 913

Category: REPLICATION OF DNA

242. In which direction does DNA polymerase synthesize new DNA strands during replication?

243 / 913

Category: REPLICATION OF DNA

243. Which of the following experiments provided definitive evidence for the semi-conservative replication model of DNA?

244 / 913

Category: Errors in DNA Replication and its Repair

244. What is the final error rate in DNA replication after proofreading and repair?

245 / 913

Category: Errors in DNA Replication and its Repair

245. Which of the following enzymes is responsible for excising defective segments of DNA during replication?

246 / 913

Category: Errors in DNA Replication and its Repair

246. What is the approximate initial error rate during DNA replication before repair mechanisms take place?

247 / 913

Category: Mechanism of DNA Replication

247. What shape is formed when the two strands of DNA separate during replication?

248 / 913

Category: Mechanism of DNA Replication

248. In which direction does DNA polymerase synthesize new DNA strands?

249 / 913

Category: Mechanism of DNA Replication

249. Which enzyme synthesizes the RNA primer required for DNA replication?

250 / 913

Category: REPLICATION OF DNA

250. According to the Watson and Crick model, how does DNA replicate?

251 / 913

Category: REPLICATION OF DNA

251. In prokaryotic cells, how many origins of replication are typically present?

252 / 913

Category: REPLICATION OF DNA

252. Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix during replication?

253 / 913

Category: snRNA, snoRNA, miRNA, siRNA

253. In the cloverleaf model of tRNA, which component directly interacts with the codon on mRNA during protein synthesis?

254 / 913

Category: snRNA, snoRNA, miRNA, siRNA

254. What is the key functional difference between miRNA and siRNA in post-transcriptional gene regulation?

255 / 913

Category: snRNA, snoRNA, miRNA, siRNA

255. Which of the following correctly describes the primary function of snRNA and snoRNA in eukaryotic cells?

256 / 913

Category: rRNA – ribosomal, structural

256. Considering rRNA constitutes 80% of cellular RNA while being non-genetic, what fundamental property makes it distinct from both mRNA and tRNA in terms of cellular function?

257 / 913

Category: rRNA – ribosomal, structural

257. What would be the most direct consequence if rRNA in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells lost its ability to bind $Mg^{2+}$ ions?

258 / 913

Category: rRNA – ribosomal, structural

258. Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between ribosomal RNA's molecular weight and its sedimentation behavior under ultracentrifugation at 100,000 gravity for 120 minutes?

259 / 913

Category: tRNA – adaptor molecule (clover-leaf model)

259. In the clover-leaf model of tRNA, which loop is responsible for binding to the ribosome during translation?

260 / 913

Category: tRNA – adaptor molecule (clover-leaf model)

260. Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase in protein synthesis?

261 / 913

Category: tRNA – adaptor molecule (clover-leaf model)

261. What is the significance of the CCA sequence at the 3' end of a tRNA molecule?

262 / 913

Category: mRNA – messenger

262. Why is eukaryotic mRNA generally more stable than prokaryotic mRNA?

263 / 913

Category: mRNA – messenger

263. Which of the following best describes the structure and function of polycistronic mRNA in prokaryotes?

264 / 913

Category: mRNA – messenger

264. During the synthesis of eukaryotic mRNA, which of the following modifications occurs to ensure its stability and functionality?

265 / 913

Category: Z-DNA

265. If a segment of DNA undergoes transition from B-form to Z-form under high salt concentration, how would its diameter change?

266 / 913

Category: Z-DNA

266. Why does Z-DNA have a dinucleotide repeating unit instead of a mononucleotide unit like B-DNA?

267 / 913

Category: Z-DNA

267. What is the primary reason for the instability of Z-DNA compared to other DNA forms?

268 / 913

Category: D-DNA

268. What would be the most plausible biological consequence of D-DNA's unique structural properties mentioned in the syllabus?

269 / 913

Category: D-DNA

269. Which of the following sets of characteristics uniquely identifies D-DNA as compared to other known DNA forms?

270 / 913

Category: D-DNA

270. A researcher is studying a DNA sample that exhibits right-handed helical structure with 8 base pairs per turn and lacks guanine bases. If this DNA contains 240 nucleotides in total, what would be the approximate length of this DNA strand?

271 / 913

Category: C-DNA

271. If a segment of C-DNA has 28 base pairs, what is the approximate length of this segment considering the distance between two base pairs in C-DNA?

272 / 913

Category: C-DNA

272. A researcher observes that under certain conditions, a DNA sample shows a diameter of 19 Å and is less stable compared to the standard B-form. Which of the following statements is correct about this DNA?

273 / 913

Category: C-DNA

273. A DNA molecule is found to have 9.33 base pairs per turn and a right-handed helical sense. If this DNA undergoes a structural change resulting in an increase of base pairs per turn to 11 while maintaining the same helical sense, which form of DNA would it most likely convert into?

274 / 913

Category: B-DNA (common)

274. In an experiment, a segment of B-DNA undergoes partial denaturation. Which structural feature primarily explains why the double-stranded form is more stable than single strands under physiological conditions?

275 / 913

Category: B-DNA (common)

275. The major groove in B-DNA plays crucial roles in protein-DNA interactions due to its accessibility to binding proteins. What would be the approximate angular displacement between two consecutive major grooves in the helix?

276 / 913

Category: B-DNA (common)

276. A researcher measures a linear B-DNA fragment and finds it makes exactly 5 complete helical turns. If the distance between successive base pairs is 3.4 Å, what is the total length of this DNA fragment?

277 / 913

Category: A-DNA

277. Compared to B-DNA, which statement correctly describes the structural differences of A-DNA?

278 / 913

Category: A-DNA

278. If a segment of A-DNA has 33 base pairs, how many complete helical turns does this segment contain?

279 / 913

Category: A-DNA

279. Under what condition does DNA predominantly adopt the A-form instead of the B-form?

280 / 913

Category: Structure of RNA

280. In eukaryotic cells, why is mRNA considered monocistronic?

281 / 913

Category: Structure of RNA

281. What is the primary structural difference between the sugar component of RNA and DNA?

282 / 913

Category: Structure of RNA

282. Which of the following correctly describes the function of the anticodon loop in tRNA?

283 / 913

Category: Variants of Double Helix DNA

283. Why is D-DNA considered an extremely rare variant in nature?

284 / 913

Category: Variants of Double Helix DNA

284. A researcher observes a left-handed DNA helix with 12 base pairs per turn and a zig-zag backbone pattern. Which DNA variant is this?

285 / 913

Category: Variants of Double Helix DNA

285. Under which of the following conditions is DNA most likely to adopt the A-form structure?

286 / 913

Category: pNA Model as Proposed by Watson and Crick

286. During DNA replication, one strand is synthesized continuously while the other is synthesized discontinuously. What is the primary reason for this difference?

287 / 913

Category: pNA Model as Proposed by Watson and Crick

287. Which of the following statements about Z-DNA is correct?

288 / 913

Category: pNA Model as Proposed by Watson and Crick

288. A DNA molecule has a total of 1000 base pairs. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 3.4 Å, what is the approximate length of this DNA molecule in nanometers?

289 / 913

Category: Variants of DNA

289. What is a key structural difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA?

290 / 913

Category: Variants of DNA

290. Under which condition is DNA most likely to adopt the A-form?

291 / 913

Category: Variants of DNA

291. Which of the following statements about Z-DNA is INCORRECT?

292 / 913

Category: Chromatin → chromosome condensation

292. In the solenoid model of chromatin packaging, how many nucleosomes are typically present per turn of the 30 nm fiber?

293 / 913

Category: Chromatin → chromosome condensation

293. A researcher observes a region of chromatin that appears darkly stained under a microscope and is transcriptionally inactive. Which type of chromatin is being observed?

294 / 913

Category: Chromatin → chromosome condensation

294. During chromatin condensation, which histone protein plays a crucial role in stabilizing the nucleosome structure by binding to the linker DNA?

295 / 913

Category: Histones (H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4)

295. Histones are rich in which positively charged amino acids that enable their interaction with the negatively charged DNA backbone?

296 / 913

Category: Histones (H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4)

296. Which histone plays a crucial role in stabilizing the 30 nm solenoid structure formed by the coiling of nucleosomes?

297 / 913

Category: Histones (H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4)

297. In a nucleosome core particle, which histones are present in pairs to form the octameric structure responsible for DNA wrapping?

298 / 913

Category: Nucleosome structure

298. A researcher observes that the removal of histone $H_1$ results in the inability to form the 30 nm chromatin fiber. What is the most plausible explanation for this observation?

299 / 913

Category: Nucleosome structure

299. During the process of gene silencing, which of the following changes is most likely to occur in the chromatin structure around the silenced gene?

300 / 913

Category: Nucleosome structure

300. If a segment of chromatin in its 30 nm solenoid form contains approximately 60 nucleosomes per 1 micrometer μm, what would be the approximate length of the DNA associated with these nucleosomes if they were in their extended "beads-on-a-string" form?

301 / 913

Category: DNA Packaging in Eukaryotes

301. If the extended length of a eukaryotic DNA molecule is 10 cm, what would be its approximate condensed length (in micrometers) during metaphase, given a compaction ratio of 10,000:1?

302 / 913

Category: DNA Packaging in Eukaryotes

302. During the transition from euchromatin to heterochromatin, which of the following changes in chromatin structure is most likely to occur due to increased DNA compaction?

303 / 913

Category: DNA Packaging in Eukaryotes

303. What would be the approximate length of DNA (in base pairs) that forms a complete solenoid structure with 10 turns, considering each turn consists of 6 nucleosomes and each nucleosome wraps approximately 146 base pairs of DNA?

304 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules

304. Two DNA samples, one from humans and another from bacteria, are analyzed. If the human DNA has an $(A + T)/(G + C)$ ratio of 1.48, while the bacterial DNA has a ratio of 0.85, which of the following conclusions is valid based on Chargaff's rules?

305 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules

305. A polynucleotide chain consists of 45 nucleotides linked via phosphodiester bonds. If the base composition follows Chargaff's rules strictly, and guanine constitutes 22% of the bases, how many thymine bases are present in the chain?

306 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules

306. In a DNA sample from species X, the adenine content is found to be 32%. What would be the expected percentage of cytosine, given that the $(A + T)/(G + C)$ ratio for this species is 1.5?

307 / 913

Category: Major and minor grooves

307. If the major groove width in a DNA molecule decreases due to a mutation altering the helix twist, what is the most plausible outcome?

308 / 913

Category: Major and minor grooves

308. In the context of DNA packaging, which feature of the minor groove contributes to histone binding?

309 / 913

Category: Major and minor grooves

309. Which of the following statements is true regarding the major groove of DNA and its role in protein binding?

310 / 913

Category: H-bonding & base pairing

310. In a single-stranded RNA molecule folding into a hairpin loop, adenine ($A$) pairs with uracil ($U$), contributing $x$ hydrogen bonds, and guanine ($G$) pairs with cytosine ($C$), contributing $y$ hydrogen bonds. If the loop contains $14$ base pairs with an average of $2.5$ hydrogen bonds per pair, how many $G-C$ pairs are present?

311 / 913

Category: H-bonding & base pairing

311. If a segment of B-DNA has 300 base pairs, what is the approximate length of this segment along the helical axis, assuming no distortions in the helix?

312 / 913

Category: H-bonding & base pairing

312. A DNA molecule has been analyzed and found to contain 20% guanine ($G$) bases. How many hydrogen bonds per base pair are formed in this DNA molecule if it is completely double-stranded?

313 / 913

Category: Nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C)

313. The backbone of a polynucleotide chain consists of which two components?

314 / 913

Category: Nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C)

314. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is NOT found in RNA but is present in DNA?

315 / 913

Category: Nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C)

315. A DNA molecule from a newly discovered organism has 18% cytosine. What is the percentage of adenine in this DNA molecule?

316 / 913

Category: Sugar-phosphate backbone

316. A researcher isolates a nucleic acid fragment containing 18 nucleotides joined by phosphodiester bonds. How should this molecule be classified based on standard biochemical definitions?

317 / 913

Category: Sugar-phosphate backbone

317. In a double-stranded DNA molecule, one strand runs from $5'$ to $3'$. What must be true about the opposite strand's sugar-phosphate backbone?

318 / 913

Category: Sugar-phosphate backbone

318. A polynucleotide chain has a free phosphate group at its 5' end and a free OH group at its 3' end. If a new nucleotide is to be added to this chain, which functional groups must react with each other to form the phosphodiester bond?

319 / 913

Category: Double-helix model (Watson & Crick)

319. Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes Z-DNA from B-DNA?

320 / 913

Category: Double-helix model (Watson & Crick)

320. A segment of one strand of DNA has the sequence $5'$-AGCT-3'. What would be the sequence of the complementary antiparallel strand?

321 / 913

Category: Double-helix model (Watson & Crick)

321. If a DNA molecule has 5000 base pairs and adopts the B-DNA conformation, what is its approximate length in nanometers?

322 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules for Base Pairing in DNA

322. A researcher analyzes two DNA samples. Sample X has a base composition where $A + T = 60%$, and Sample Y has $G + C = 55%$. Which of the following is true about their melting temperatures ($T_m$)?

323 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules for Base Pairing in DNA

323. If a double-stranded DNA molecule has 15% cytosine residues, which of the following statements about its base composition is correct?

324 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules for Base Pairing in DNA

324. In a DNA sample from an unknown organism, the percentage of adenine is found to be 30%. What can be concluded about the percentages of guanine and cytosine combined?

325 / 913

Category: Structure of DNA

325. Which of the following correctly describes the difference between purines and pyrimidines?

326 / 913

Category: Structure of DNA

326. Under conditions of dehydration, which form of DNA is most likely to be observed?

327 / 913

Category: Structure of DNA

327. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Z-DNA structure?

328 / 913

Category: Nucleic Acids

328. What type of bond connects the sugar of one nucleotide to the phosphate group of another nucleotide in a polynucleotide chain?

329 / 913

Category: Nucleic Acids

329. Which nitrogenous base is present in RNA but not in DNA?

330 / 913

Category: Nucleic Acids

330. In a double-stranded DNA molecule, if the percentage of guanine bases is 28%, what is the percentage of adenine bases?

331 / 913

Category: snRNA, snoRNA, miRNA, siRNA

331. What is the mechanism by which siRNA regulates gene expression?

332 / 913

Category: snRNA, snoRNA, miRNA, siRNA

332. Where are snRNA and snoRNA primarily located in eukaryotic cells?

333 / 913

Category: snRNA, snoRNA, miRNA, siRNA

333. Which of the following best describes the primary function of miRNA in eukaryotic cells?

334 / 913

Category: rRNA – ribosomal, structural

334. Which of the following statements accurately distinguishes RNA from DNA?

335 / 913

Category: rRNA – ribosomal, structural

335. Which type of RNA is exclusively found in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and assists in processing pre-rRNA?

336 / 913

Category: rRNA – ribosomal, structural

336. Which of the following best describes the primary role of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) in protein synthesis?

337 / 913

Category: tRNA – adaptor molecule (clover-leaf model)

337. Which enzyme is responsible for attaching the correct amino acid to its corresponding tRNA?

338 / 913

Category: tRNA – adaptor molecule (clover-leaf model)

338. What is the role of the anticodon in tRNA during protein synthesis?

339 / 913

Category: tRNA – adaptor molecule (clover-leaf model)

339. Which of the following correctly describes the clover-leaf model of tRNA?

340 / 913

Category: mRNA – messenger

340. During protein synthesis, what is the primary function of mRNA?

341 / 913

Category: mRNA – messenger

341. Which of the following is a key difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic mRNA?

342 / 913

Category: mRNA – messenger

342. What is the role of the 5' cap added to eukaryotic mRNA during processing?

343 / 913

Category: Z-DNA

343. In what type of sequences is Z-DNA most likely to form?

344 / 913

Category: Z-DNA

344. What makes Z-DNA less stable compared to B-DNA?

345 / 913

Category: Z-DNA

345. Which of the following statements is true about Z-DNA?

346 / 913

Category: D-DNA

346. What is the distance between consecutive base pairs in D-DNA?

347 / 913

Category: D-DNA

347. Why is D-DNA considered unstable compared to other DNA forms?

348 / 913

Category: D-DNA

348. Which of the following statements about D-DNA is correct?

349 / 913

Category: C-DNA

349. Under what conditions is C-DNA most likely to form?

350 / 913

Category: C-DNA

350. How does the stability of C-DNA compare to B-DNA and Z-DNA?

351 / 913

Category: C-DNA

351. Which of the following statements about C-DNA is correct?

352 / 913

Category: B-DNA (common)

352. Which of the following describes the orientation of the two polynucleotide strands in B-DNA?

353 / 913

Category: B-DNA (common)

353. What is the distance between two successive base pairs in B-DNA?

354 / 913

Category: B-DNA (common)

354. How many hydrogen bonds stabilize the base pair G-C in B-DNA?

355 / 913

Category: A-DNA

355. What is the diameter of A-DNA as compared to other forms of DNA listed in the table?

356 / 913

Category: A-DNA

356. Under what condition does DNA primarily adopt the A-form conformation?

357 / 913

Category: A-DNA

357. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of A-DNA compared to B-DNA?

358 / 913

Category: Structure of RNA

358. In the clover leaf model of tRNA, which loop contains the anticodon that binds to mRNA codons during translation?

359 / 913

Category: Structure of RNA

359. Which type of RNA carries genetic information from DNA to ribosomes for protein synthesis?

360 / 913

Category: Structure of RNA

360. Which nitrogenous base is present in RNA but not in DNA?

361 / 913

Category: Variants of Double Helix DNA

361. What distinguishes D-DNA from other forms of DNA regarding its base composition?

362 / 913

Category: Variants of Double Helix DNA

362. Which characteristic is unique to Z-DNA among the different forms of DNA?

363 / 913

Category: Variants of Double Helix DNA

363. Which of the following statements correctly describes the structural feature that distinguishes A-DNA from B-DNA?

364 / 913

Category: pNA Model as Proposed by Watson and Crick

364. If a segment of DNA has 30% thymine (T), what percentage of guanine (G) would be expected based on Chargaff's rule?

365 / 913

Category: pNA Model as Proposed by Watson and Crick

365. Which variant of DNA is characterized by a left-handed helix and a zigzag sugar-phosphate backbone?

366 / 913

Category: pNA Model as Proposed by Watson and Crick

366. According to the Watson-Crick model of DNA, what is the distance between successive base pairs in a DNA double helix?

367 / 913

Category: Variants of DNA

367. Under which condition does A-DNA predominantly form?

368 / 913

Category: Variants of DNA

368. What distinguishes Z-DNA from B-DNA?

369 / 913

Category: Variants of DNA

369. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of B-DNA?

370 / 913

Category: Chromatin → chromosome condensation

370. What is the approximate number of nucleosomes per turn in the 30 nm solenoid structure?

371 / 913

Category: Chromatin → chromosome condensation

371. Which histone protein binds to the linker DNA and stabilizes the nucleosome structure?

372 / 913

Category: Histones (H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4)

372. Why do histones exhibit a positive charge under physiological conditions?

373 / 913

Category: Histones (H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4)

373. Which histone is referred to as the linker histone due to its role in connecting nucleosomes?

374 / 913

Category: Histones (H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4)

374. Which histone proteins are present in pairs within the histone octamer?

375 / 913

Category: Nucleosome structure

375. Which histone is associated with linker DNA and stabilizes the nucleosome structure by facilitating solenoid formation?

376 / 913

Category: Nucleosome structure

376. What is the composition of the histone octamer in a nucleosome core particle?

377 / 913

Category: DNA Packaging in Eukaryotes

377. Which of the following best describes euchromatin?

378 / 913

Category: DNA Packaging in Eukaryotes

378. What is the primary role of histone H1 in DNA packaging?

379 / 913

Category: DNA Packaging in Eukaryotes

379. Which of the following statements about nucleosomes is correct?

380 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules

380. In a polynucleotide chain of DNA, what type of bond connects two adjacent nucleotides?

381 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules

381. Which of the following statements about base composition in DNA is correct based on Chargaff’s rules?

382 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules

382. A DNA sample has 18% guanine. What is the percentage of thymine in this sample according to Chargaff's rules?

383 / 913

Category: Major and minor grooves

383. Which of the following proteins is most likely to bind to the major groove of DNA?

384 / 913

Category: Major and minor grooves

384. Why is the major groove more significant for protein-DNA interactions compared to the minor groove?

385 / 913

Category: Major and minor grooves

385. What is the approximate width of the major groove in DNA?

386 / 913

Category: H-bonding & base pairing

386. In RNA, which nitrogenous base pairs with guanine and how many hydrogen bonds are formed between them?

387 / 913

Category: H-bonding & base pairing

387. Which of the following DNA variants has a left-handed helix and was discovered by Andrew Wang and Alexander Rich in 1979?

388 / 913

Category: H-bonding & base pairing

388. If a DNA molecule has 20% adenine, what is the percentage of cytosine according to Chargaff's rules?

389 / 913

Category: Nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C)

389. What type of bond connects the sugar of one nucleotide to the phosphate group of the next nucleotide in DNA?

390 / 913

Category: Nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C)

390. According to Chargaff's rules, if a DNA sample has 20% adenine, what percentage of thymine will it contain?

391 / 913

Category: Nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C)

391. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is a pyrimidine?

392 / 913

Category: Sugar-phosphate backbone

392. How many nucleotides are present in one complete turn of a DNA helix, given the distance between successive nucleotides is 3.4 Å and the helix makes one complete turn every 34 Å?

393 / 913

Category: Sugar-phosphate backbone

393. How is a phosphodiester bond formed between two nucleotides in a DNA strand?

394 / 913

Category: Sugar-phosphate backbone

394. In a DNA molecule, the two polynucleotide strands run in opposite directions. What does this antiparallel arrangement imply?

395 / 913

Category: Double-helix model (Watson & Crick)

395. How many base pairs are present per complete turn of the B-DNA double helix?

396 / 913

Category: Double-helix model (Watson & Crick)

396. Which of the following nitrogenous base pairs is correct as per the Watson-Crick model?

397 / 913

Category: Double-helix model (Watson & Crick)

397. What is the distance between two successive base pairs in the Watson-Crick DNA double helix model?

398 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules for Base Pairing in DNA

398. If the total molar amount of thymine in a DNA sample is 10 nmol, what is the total molar amount of guanine, assuming Chargaff's rules hold true?

399 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules for Base Pairing in DNA

399. In a double-stranded DNA molecule, if the ratio $(A + T)/(G + C)$ is 1.5, what does this imply about the base composition according to Chargaff's rules?

400 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules for Base Pairing in DNA

400. If a DNA sample contains 30% adenine, what is the percentage of cytosine based on Chargaff's rules?

401 / 913

Category: Structure of DNA

401. Which of the following features distinguishes Z-DNA from B-DNA?

402 / 913

Category: Structure of DNA

402. Which of the following statements is true about the B-DNA structure as per the Watson and Crick model?

403 / 913

Category: Structure of DNA

403. In the Watson and Crick model of DNA, guanine forms hydrogen bonds with which nitrogenous base?

404 / 913

Category: Nucleic Acids

404. A nucleotide consists of which of the following components?

405 / 913

Category: Nucleic Acids

405. According to Chargaff's rules, if a DNA molecule has 20% thymine, what percentage of guanine will it contain?

406 / 913

Category: Nucleic Acids

406. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is exclusively found in RNA and not in DNA?

407 / 913

Category: snRNA, snoRNA, miRNA, siRNA

407. Which type of RNA inhibits the translation of mRNA in eukaryotic cells?

408 / 913

Category: snRNA, snoRNA, miRNA, siRNA

408. What is the function of snoRNA in eukaryotic cells?

409 / 913

Category: snRNA, snoRNA, miRNA, siRNA

409. Where is snRNA primarily located in eukaryotic cells?

410 / 913

Category: rRNA – ribosomal, structural

410. Where is ribosomal RNA (rRNA) primarily synthesized in eukaryotic cells?

411 / 913

Category: rRNA – ribosomal, structural

411. Which of the following best describes the primary function of ribosomal RNA (rRNA)?

412 / 913

Category: rRNA – ribosomal, structural

412. What percentage of the total RNA in a cell is ribosomal RNA (rRNA)?

413 / 913

Category: tRNA – adaptor molecule (clover-leaf model)

413. Which enzyme is responsible for attaching the correct amino acid to its corresponding tRNA?

414 / 913

Category: tRNA – adaptor molecule (clover-leaf model)

414. Where is the amino acid attached to a tRNA molecule?

415 / 913

Category: tRNA – adaptor molecule (clover-leaf model)

415. What is the function of the anticodon loop in tRNA?

416 / 913

Category: mRNA – messenger

416. Which feature is unique to prokaryotic mRNA and absent in eukaryotic mRNA?

417 / 913

Category: mRNA – messenger

417. What is added to the 5' end of eukaryotic mRNA during processing?

418 / 913

Category: mRNA – messenger

418. Which of the following statements about mRNA is correct?

419 / 913

Category: Z-DNA

419. What is the repeating unit in Z-DNA?

420 / 913

Category: Z-DNA

420. How many base pairs are there per helical turn in Z-DNA?

421 / 913

Category: Z-DNA

421. What is the helical sense of Z-DNA?

422 / 913

Category: D-DNA

422. Which base is absent in D-DNA?

423 / 913

Category: D-DNA

423. How many base pairs are present per helical turn in D-DNA?

424 / 913

Category: D-DNA

424. What is the helical structure of D-DNA?

425 / 913

Category: C-DNA

425. Which of the following statements is true about the stability of C-DNA?

426 / 913

Category: C-DNA

426. What is the diameter of the C-DNA helix?

427 / 913

Category: C-DNA

427. What is the number of base pairs per turn in C-DNA?

428 / 913

Category: B-DNA (common)

428. Which of the following correctly describes the hydrogen bonding pattern between base pairs in B-DNA?

429 / 913

Category: B-DNA (common)

429. What is the diameter of the B-DNA helix?

430 / 913

Category: B-DNA (common)

430. How many base pairs are present per turn of the B-DNA helix?

431 / 913

Category: A-DNA

431. How many base pairs are present per turn in A-DNA?

432 / 913

Category: A-DNA

432. What is the helical handedness of A-DNA?

433 / 913

Category: Structure of RNA

433. Which type of RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome for protein synthesis?

434 / 913

Category: Structure of RNA

434. What is the sugar component present in RNA's backbone?

435 / 913

Category: Structure of RNA

435. Which nitrogenous base is present in RNA but not in DNA?

436 / 913

Category: Variants of Double Helix DNA

436. Under which condition does DNA primarily adopt the A-form instead of the B-form?

437 / 913

Category: Variants of Double Helix DNA

437. How many base pairs are present per helical turn in B-DNA under physiological conditions?

438 / 913

Category: Variants of Double Helix DNA

438. Which form of DNA is left-handed and has a zig-zag arrangement of phosphate groups in its backbone?

439 / 913

Category: pNA Model as Proposed by Watson and Crick

439. Which form of DNA is left-handed and has a zigzag sugar-phosphate backbone?

440 / 913

Category: pNA Model as Proposed by Watson and Crick

440. Which of the following base pairs is correct according to Watson and Crick's model?

441 / 913

Category: pNA Model as Proposed by Watson and Crick

441. What is the diameter of B-DNA?

442 / 913

Category: Variants of DNA

442. Under what condition does DNA typically assume the A-form?

443 / 913

Category: Variants of DNA

443. What is a key structural feature of Z-DNA that distinguishes it from B-DNA?

444 / 913

Category: Variants of DNA

444. Which form of DNA is the most stable and biologically active under physiological conditions?

445 / 913

Category: Chromatin → chromosome condensation

445. Which type of chromatin is transcriptionally active?

446 / 913

Category: Chromatin → chromosome condensation

446. Which histone protein aids in the folding of the 10 nm fiber into the 30 nm solenoid structure?

447 / 913

Category: Chromatin → chromosome condensation

447. What is the composition of a nucleosome core particle?

448 / 913

Category: Histones (H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4)

448. Among the histones, which ones are the most conserved across different species?

449 / 913

Category: Histones (H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4)

449. Which histone is known as the linker histone and binds to the DNA between nucleosomes?

450 / 913

Category: Histones (H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4)

450. Which histone proteins are present in the octamer structure of a nucleosome?

451 / 913

Category: Nucleosome structure

451. Approximately how many base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer in a nucleosome?

452 / 913

Category: Nucleosome structure

452. Which of the following histone proteins are NOT part of the nucleosome core particle?

453 / 913

Category: DNA Packaging in Eukaryotes

453. What is the diameter of the chromatin fiber formed by solenoid structure?

454 / 913

Category: DNA Packaging in Eukaryotes

454. Which type of chromatin is transcriptionally active and stains lightly?

455 / 913

Category: DNA Packaging in Eukaryotes

455. What is the composition of a single histone octamer in a nucleosome?

456 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules

456. What does Chargaff's rule state about the base composition of DNA from different species?

457 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules

457. In a DNA molecule, what is the relationship between purines and pyrimidines according to Chargaff's rules?

458 / 913

Category: Major and minor grooves

458. Why is the major groove more significant for protein binding compared to the minor groove?

459 / 913

Category: Major and minor grooves

459. What is the approximate width of the minor groove in DNA?

460 / 913

Category: Major and minor grooves

460. Which of the following best describes the major groove in DNA?

461 / 913

Category: H-bonding & base pairing

461. Which of the following describes the arrangement of the two polynucleotide strands in a DNA double helix?

462 / 913

Category: H-bonding & base pairing

462. According to Chargaff's rules, if a DNA sample contains 30% adenine, what is the percentage of thymine?

463 / 913

Category: H-bonding & base pairing

463. How many hydrogen bonds are formed between adenine and thymine in a DNA molecule?

464 / 913

Category: Nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C)

464. How many nitrogen atoms are present in the ring structure of a purine?

465 / 913

Category: Nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C)

465. According to Chargaff's rules, which base pairs with cytosine in DNA?

466 / 913

Category: Nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C)

466. Which of the following is a pyrimidine?

467 / 913

Category: Sugar-phosphate backbone

467. What type of bond connects two adjacent nucleotides in a polynucleotide chain?

468 / 913

Category: Double-helix model (Watson & Crick)

468. How many base pairs are present per complete turn of the B-DNA helix?

469 / 913

Category: Double-helix model (Watson & Crick)

469. According to the Watson-Crick model, which nitrogenous base pairs with thymine (T)?

470 / 913

Category: Double-helix model (Watson & Crick)

470. Who proposed the double-helix model of DNA?

471 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules for Base Pairing in DNA

471. Which variant of DNA has a left-handed helical structure?

472 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules for Base Pairing in DNA

472. Which of the following equations correctly represents Chargaff’s rule for purines and pyrimidines in DNA?

473 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules for Base Pairing in DNA

473. In DNA, according to Chargaff's rules, if a segment contains 20% adenine (A), what is the percentage of thymine (T)?

474 / 913

Category: Structure of DNA

474. Which form of DNA has a left-handed helix structure?

475 / 913

Category: Structure of DNA

475. In DNA, adenine always pairs with:

476 / 913

Category: Structure of DNA

476. Which of the following is NOT a component of a DNA nucleotide?

477 / 913

Category: Nucleic Acids

477. According to Chargaff's rules, if a DNA sample has 30% adenine, what percentage of thymine would it contain?

478 / 913

Category: Nucleic Acids

478. Which of the following is a purine base found in DNA?

479 / 913

Category: Nucleic Acids

479. Which of the following components is NOT part of a nucleotide?

480 / 913

Category: Nature of Genes

480. A mutation occurs in a bacterial gene that changes a single nucleotide but does not alter the amino acid sequence of the resulting protein. Which statement best explains why this mutation might still have significant consequences?

481 / 913

Category: Nature of Genes

481. A researcher observes that a particular eukaryotic gene produces different protein variants in different tissues. What molecular mechanism is most likely responsible for this observation?

482 / 913

Category: Nature of Genes

482. Which of the following statements correctly explains why RNA viruses pose a unique challenge regarding the stability of their genetic material compared to DNA-based organisms?

483 / 913

Category: Function of Genes

483. During meiosis, homologous chromosomes exchange segments through crossing over. How does this process contribute to genetic diversity?

484 / 913

Category: Function of Genes

484. A researcher observes that a particular mRNA molecule is abundantly present in a cell, but the corresponding protein is rarely detected. What is the most plausible explanation for this observation?

485 / 913

Category: Function of Genes

485. If a mutation occurs in the promoter region of a gene that increases its affinity for RNA polymerase, what is the most likely effect on gene expression?

486 / 913

Category: Evidence from TMV experiments

486. According to the RNA world hypothesis, why is RNA considered a probable candidate for the first genetic material on Earth?

487 / 913

Category: Evidence from TMV experiments

487. Which of the following properties makes DNA a more suitable genetic material than RNA for most organisms, based on indirect evidence?

488 / 913

Category: Evidence from TMV experiments

488. In the TMV reconstitution experiments conducted by Fraenkel-Conrat and Singer, what was the key observation that confirmed RNA as the genetic material in tobacco mosaic virus?

489 / 913

Category: Exceptions: RNA viruses

489. In the Fraenkel-Conrat and Singer experiment with TMV, what did the results demonstrate about the genetic material of the virus?

490 / 913

Category: Exceptions: RNA viruses

490. According to the RNA world hypothesis, which of the following properties of RNA supports its proposed role as the first genetic material?

491 / 913

Category: Exceptions: RNA viruses

491. Which of the following statements about retroviruses is INCORRECT?

492 / 913

Category: DNA as predominant hereditary material

492. If the amount of DNA in haploid germ cells is 'X', what would be the expected amount in diploid somatic cells, assuming no mutations or abnormalities?

493 / 913

Category: DNA as predominant hereditary material

493. Which of the following properties of DNA makes it more suitable as genetic material compared to RNA, except in certain viruses?

494 / 913

Category: DNA as predominant hereditary material

494. In the Hershey-Chase experiment, if the radioactive $^{32}P$ was found in the progeny phages but not $^{35}S$, what does this indicate about the genetic material?

495 / 913

Category: Nature of Genetic Material

495. Why is DNA considered a more stable genetic material compared to RNA?

496 / 913

Category: Nature of Genetic Material

496. What conclusion can be drawn from Fraenkel-Conrat and Singer's experiments with TMV?

497 / 913

Category: Nature of Genetic Material

497. In Griffith's experiment, what was the key observation that suggested the presence of a "transforming principle"?

498 / 913

Category: Expression through proteins

498. What happens when a ribosome encounters the stop codon $UAA$ during translation?

499 / 913

Category: Expression through proteins

499. If lactose is introduced into an E. coli culture previously grown on glucose, what will be the immediate effect on $\beta$-galactosidase production?

500 / 913

Category: Expression through proteins

500. In a bacterial culture with excess tryptophan, what happens to the expression of genes in the trp operon?

501 / 913

Category: Alleles & multiple allelism

501. In a newly discovered insect species, wing pattern is controlled by three alleles: $S^A$ (striped), $S^B$ (spotted), and $s$ (plain). $S^A$ and $S^B$ are codominant, while $s$ is recessive. If an insect with genotype $S^As$ mates with another insect with genotype $S^Bs$, what is the probability of their offspring having both striped and spotted wings?

502 / 913

Category: Alleles & multiple allelism

502. A plant species has flower color determined by three alleles: $R$ (red), $r^w$ (white), and $r$ (yellow), where $R$ is dominant over $r^w$ and $r$, and $r^w$ is dominant over $r$. If two plants with genotypes $Rr^w$ and $Rr$ are crossed, what percentage of the offspring will have white flowers?

503 / 913

Category: Alleles & multiple allelism

503. In a population with three alleles for fur color in rabbits: $C$ (black), $c^h$ (chinchilla), and $c$ (albino), where $C$ is dominant over $c^h$ and $c$, and $c^h$ is dominant over $c$. If a black rabbit ($Cc$) mates with a chinchilla rabbit ($c^hc$), what is the probability of their offspring being albino?

504 / 913

Category: Fixed position on chromosome

504. How does the packaging of DNA into nucleosomes contribute to the stable transmission of genes during cell division?

505 / 913

Category: Fixed position on chromosome

505. During DNA replication, if a mutational event occurs at a specific point on the chromosome, what could be the immediate consequence for the gene located at that position?

506 / 913

Category: Fixed position on chromosome

506. If a gene loses its chemical stability due to environmental factors, which of the following processes is most likely to be directly affected?

507 / 913

Category: Information storage

507. In Hershey and Chase’s experiment, what was the key observation that confirmed DNA as the genetic material?

508 / 913

Category: Information storage

508. In certain viruses, genetic information flows from RNA to DNA. Which enzyme facilitates this process?

509 / 913

Category: Information storage

509. Which of the following best explains why DNA is more chemically stable than RNA?

510 / 913

Category: Mutability

510. During DNA replication, a thymine dimer is formed due to UV radiation exposure. How does the cell typically repair this type of damage, and what would be the consequence if this repair fails?

511 / 913

Category: Mutability

511. A deletion mutation removes a single adenine base from the coding strand of a gene. If the original DNA sequence was ATG-CCA-TAC-GAT, how will this mutation most likely affect the resulting protein?

512 / 913

Category: Mutability

512. A gene undergoes a mutation where the codon GAG (glutamic acid) changes to GTG (valine). In another mutation, the codon AGT (serine) changes to ACT (threonine). Which of the following best describes these mutations and their effects on protein function?

513 / 913

Category: Chemical stability

513. The phosphodiester bonds in RNA are more susceptible to hydrolysis than those in DNA under alkaline conditions. What structural feature primarily accounts for this difference?

514 / 913

Category: Chemical stability

514. In the Hershey-Chase experiment, radioactive $^{32}P$ was used to label DNA, while $^{35}S$ labeled protein. If RNA had been the genetic material instead of DNA, what outcome would most likely be observed when using these isotopes?

515 / 913

Category: Chemical stability

515. A researcher hypothesizes that replacing uracil with thymine in RNA would significantly increase its stability. Which of the following best explains why this modification might not fully stabilize RNA as much as DNA?

516 / 913

Category: Ability to replicate

516. In the Meselson-Stahl experiment, what would be the expected distribution of DNA bands after one round of replication in $^{14}N$ medium if DNA replicated conservatively?

517 / 913

Category: Ability to replicate

517. Which enzyme is primarily responsible for correcting mismatched base pairs during DNA replication?

518 / 913

Category: Ability to replicate

518. During DNA replication, why is the lagging strand synthesized discontinuously as Okazaki fragments?

519 / 913

Category: Properties of Genes (Genetic Material)

519. Which of the following is NOT a function of a gene as per its definition?

520 / 913

Category: Properties of Genes (Genetic Material)

520. Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between a cistron, recon, and muton?

521 / 913

Category: Properties of Genes (Genetic Material)

521. In the Hershey–Chase experiment, what was the purpose of using radioactive sulfur (³⁵S) and radioactive phosphorus (³²P)?

522 / 913

Category: Recon – unit of recombination

522. Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between a recon, a muton, and a cistron in terms of their sizes and functions?

523 / 913

Category: Recon – unit of recombination

523. If two mutons are separated by a distance of 1000 base pairs and the recombination frequency between them is 1%, what does this imply about the size of the recon in this region?

524 / 913

Category: Recon – unit of recombination

524. In a genetic study, two mutations are observed at positions 150 bp and 450 bp in a DNA sequence. If recombination occurs between these two positions, what is the minimum size of the recon required for this recombination event?

525 / 913

Category: Muton – unit of mutation

525. A scientist studies a bacterial strain resistant to tetracycline. Which step of protein synthesis is directly inhibited by tetracycline in non-resistant bacteria?

526 / 913

Category: Muton – unit of mutation

526. In sickle cell anemia, the mutation causes glutamic acid to be replaced by valine at position 6 in the beta-globin chain. What type of mutation best describes this change?

527 / 913

Category: Muton – unit of mutation

527. A researcher observes that a mutation in a bacterial gene results in the production of an incomplete protein. The mutation was identified as a single base change converting a codon for an amino acid to a nonsense codon. What is the smallest unit of mutation involved in this scenario?

528 / 913

Category: Cistron – unit of function

528. What happens to introns during the post-transcriptional processing of eukaryotic mRNA?

529 / 913

Category: Cistron – unit of function

529. In prokaryotes, why can newly formed mRNA immediately undergo translation without extensive processing?

530 / 913

Category: Cistron – unit of function

530. Which of the following best describes a cistron in molecular genetics?

531 / 913

Category: Gene Sub-units

531. A scientist observes that a gene successfully replicates during cell division, controls the expression of a specific trait, and occasionally undergoes changes leading to new variants. Which of the following properties are demonstrated by this gene?

532 / 913

Category: Gene Sub-units

532. In a population, a gene exists in three different forms, each controlling a distinct expression of the same trait. What is this phenomenon called, and what are the different forms of the gene known as?

533 / 913

Category: Gene Sub-units

533. A segment of DNA undergoes a mutation where a single nucleotide is changed. This change affects the polypeptide chain produced. What is the smallest unit of DNA that could have been altered to cause this mutation?

534 / 913

Category: One gene–one polypeptide concept

534. How does the presence of introns and exons in eukaryotic genes complicate the one gene–one polypeptide concept?

535 / 913

Category: One gene–one polypeptide concept

535. In certain viruses, how does the concept of overlapping genes challenge the traditional one gene–one polypeptide hypothesis?

536 / 913

Category: One gene–one polypeptide concept

536. Which of the following best explains why Beadle and Tatum's work with Neurospora crassa supported the one gene–one enzyme hypothesis?

537 / 913

Category: Functional unit of heredity

537. Which histone protein is exclusively found outside the core nucleosome structure and serves as a linker between nucleosomes?

538 / 913

Category: Functional unit of heredity

538. In some viruses, a single stretch of DNA can code for multiple polypeptides through alternative reading frames. How does this observation modify the classic "one gene-one polypeptide" hypothesis?

539 / 913

Category: Functional unit of heredity

539. A scientist is studying a gene segment that has been shown to be the smallest unit capable of recombination in genetic crosses. What term best describes this genetic unit?

540 / 913

Category: Mendelian factor

540. In eukaryotes, the "one gene-one polypeptide" hypothesis was modified due to the discovery of which phenomenon?

541 / 913

Category: Mendelian factor

541. Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between cistron, muton, and recon as per Seymour Benzer's definitions?

542 / 913

Category: Definition & Concept of Gene

542. If a gene has a cistron of 1500 base pairs, a recon of 50 base pairs, and a muton of 2 base pairs, what is the smallest unit capable of recombination within this gene?

543 / 913

Category: Definition & Concept of Gene

543. In the context of the one gene-one polypeptide hypothesis, which scenario violates this principle?

544 / 913

Category: Definition & Concept of Gene

544. Which of the following statements about genes is incorrect based on their functional and structural properties?

545 / 913

Category: Genes

545. What was the primary goal of the Human Genome Project (HGP)?

546 / 913

Category: Genes

546. During the central dogma process, which step involves the synthesis of RNA from DNA?

547 / 913

Category: Genes

547. Which of the following statements about mutons is correct?

548 / 913

Category: Nature of Genes

548. Which statement about genes is INCORRECT?

549 / 913

Category: Nature of Genes

549. Which of the following is NOT a function that qualifies a segment of DNA as a gene?

550 / 913

Category: Function of Genes

550. What is the smallest unit of DNA capable of giving rise to a new form by mutation?

551 / 913

Category: Function of Genes

551. In prokaryotes, where does the predominant control of gene expression occur?

552 / 913

Category: Function of Genes

552. Which of the following is NOT a function of genes as per the given syllabus?

553 / 913

Category: Evidence from TMV experiments

553. According to the Feulgen reaction, how is DNA chemically confirmed?

554 / 913

Category: Evidence from TMV experiments

554. Which of the following properties makes DNA more suitable than RNA as the primary genetic material in most organisms?

555 / 913

Category: Evidence from TMV experiments

555. In the Fraenkel-Conrat and Singer experiment, what was observed about the progeny viruses when hybrid TMV viruses with swapped RNA and protein were allowed to infect tobacco leaves?

556 / 913

Category: Exceptions: RNA viruses

556. The central dogma exception shown by retroviruses involves which of the following processes?

557 / 913

Category: Exceptions: RNA viruses

557. Which enzyme synthesizes DNA from an RNA template in retroviruses?

558 / 913

Category: Exceptions: RNA viruses

558. The genetic material of Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) is composed of:

559 / 913

Category: DNA as predominant hereditary material

559. What color does DNA produce in the Feulgen reaction?

560 / 913

Category: DNA as predominant hereditary material

560. Which property is NOT essential for a molecule to act as genetic material?

561 / 913

Category: DNA as predominant hereditary material

561. In the Hershey-Chase experiment, which radioactive isotope was used to label DNA in the T₂ bacteriophage?

562 / 913

Category: Nature of Genetic Material

562. What does a positive Feulgen reaction indicate about a biological sample?

563 / 913

Category: Nature of Genetic Material

563. Which property makes RNA unsuitable as a stable genetic material compared to DNA in most organisms?

564 / 913

Category: Nature of Genetic Material

564. Which experiment provided the most conclusive evidence that DNA is the genetic material in bacteria?

565 / 913

Category: Expression through proteins

565. Which amino acid is deformylated during post-translational modification in prokaryotes?

566 / 913

Category: Expression through proteins

566. What happens when a co-repressor binds to the repressor in feedback repression?

567 / 913

Category: Expression through proteins

567. In the lac operon of E. coli, what is the role of the operator gene?

568 / 913

Category: Alleles & multiple allelism

568. If a rabbit has the genotype $c^{ch} c$, what is its likely coat color phenotype? (Assume $C$ = full color, $c^{ch}$ = chinchilla, $c$ = albino)

569 / 913

Category: Alleles & multiple allelism

569. Which of the following best describes the condition where both alleles in a heterozygote are fully expressed without blending?

570 / 913

Category: Alleles & multiple allelism

570. In the ABO blood group system, what is the genotype of an individual with blood type AB?

571 / 913

Category: Fixed position on chromosome

571. What structural feature of DNA enables its stable transmission of genetic information during cell division?

572 / 913

Category: Fixed position on chromosome

572. Which property of genes allows them to undergo changes that can lead to variations in phenotypic traits?

573 / 913

Category: Fixed position on chromosome

573. During DNA replication, what ensures that each daughter cell receives an exact replica of the parent cell's genetic material?

574 / 913

Category: Information storage

574. What is the likely outcome of a point mutation in the coding region of a gene that changes one nucleotide but does not alter the amino acid sequence?

575 / 913

Category: Information storage

575. During the process of transcription, what is synthesized using DNA as a template?

576 / 913

Category: Information storage

576. Which property of DNA makes it a more stable genetic material compared to RNA?

577 / 913

Category: Mutability

577. Which of the following is NOT typically classified as an environmental mutagen?

578 / 913

Category: Mutability

578. Which of the following mutations would most likely result in a frameshift in the coding region of a gene?

579 / 913

Category: Mutability

579. A mutation changes a codon in the β-chain of hemoglobin from GAG to GUG. What is the likely consequence of this mutation?

580 / 913

Category: Chemical stability

580. Why does RNA mutate at a faster rate compared to DNA?

581 / 913

Category: Chemical stability

581. What structural feature in RNA makes it more prone to degradation compared to DNA?

582 / 913

Category: Chemical stability

582. Why is DNA more chemically stable than RNA?

583 / 913

Category: Ability to replicate

583. According to the semi-conservative model of DNA replication, what will be the composition of the two daughter DNA molecules after one round of replication?

584 / 913

Category: Ability to replicate

584. Which enzyme is responsible for synthesizing short RNA primers during DNA replication?

585 / 913

Category: Properties of Genes (Genetic Material)

585. Which function ensures that genetic traits are passed faithfully to progeny?

586 / 913

Category: Properties of Genes (Genetic Material)

586. What is the genetic material in most organisms, including humans?

587 / 913

Category: Properties of Genes (Genetic Material)

587. Which of the following is NOT a property of genes?

588 / 913

Category: Recon – unit of recombination

588. Under what condition can a recon and a muton be of the same size?

589 / 913

Category: Recon – unit of recombination

589. What is a recon in genetic terms?

590 / 913

Category: Recon – unit of recombination

590. Which of the following correctly represents the size hierarchy of gene subunits from largest to smallest?

591 / 913

Category: Muton – unit of mutation

591. Which type of mutation causes a shift in the reading frame of codons starting from the site of mutation?

592 / 913

Category: Muton – unit of mutation

592. A single base change in a codon results in a different amino acid being incorporated into the protein. What type of mutation is this?

593 / 913

Category: Muton – unit of mutation

593. What is the smallest length of DNA that can undergo a mutation and give rise to a new form?

594 / 913

Category: Cistron – unit of function

594. The cis-trans test is used to determine:

595 / 913

Category: Cistron – unit of function

595. What is the relationship between a cistron, muton, and recon?

596 / 913

Category: Cistron – unit of function

596. Which of the following best describes a cistron?

597 / 913

Category: Gene Sub-units

597. What happens during feedback repression in prokaryotic gene regulation?

598 / 913

Category: Gene Sub-units

598. Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between cistron, recon, and muton?

599 / 913

Category: Gene Sub-units

599. What is the composition of the histone octamer in a nucleosome?

600 / 913

Category: One gene–one polypeptide concept

600. Why does the genetic code exhibit degeneracy?

601 / 913

Category: One gene–one polypeptide concept

601. What is the significance of a cistron as defined by Seymour Benzer?

602 / 913

Category: One gene–one polypeptide concept

602. Which of the following best describes the "one gene–one polypeptide" hypothesis?

603 / 913

Category: Functional unit of heredity

603. What are the histone proteins that form the core particle of a nucleosome?

604 / 913

Category: Functional unit of heredity

604. Which of the following correctly describes a recon in terms of its size compared to a cistron and muton?

605 / 913

Category: Functional unit of heredity

605. According to the one gene-one polypeptide hypothesis, what does a single gene code for?

606 / 913

Category: Mendelian factor

606. According to the molecular basis of inheritance, which property is NOT a function of a gene?

607 / 913

Category: Mendelian factor

607. Which of the following represents the smallest unit capable of undergoing mutation within a gene?

608 / 913

Category: Mendelian factor

608. According to the one gene-one polypeptide hypothesis, what does a single gene code for?

609 / 913

Category: Definition & Concept of Gene

609. Which of the following is NOT a property of genes?

610 / 913

Category: Definition & Concept of Gene

610. What is the smallest unit of DNA capable of undergoing recombination?

611 / 913

Category: Definition & Concept of Gene

611. Which hypothesis states that one gene controls the production of only one polypeptide chain?

612 / 913

Category: Genes

612. During DNA replication, which enzyme is responsible for joining Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand?

613 / 913

Category: Genes

613. A sequence of three nucleotide bases in mRNA that codes for an amino acid is known as:

614 / 913

Category: Genes

614. Which of the following is the smallest unit of a gene that can undergo mutation?

615 / 913

Category: Nature of Genes

615. Where are genes primarily located in eukaryotic cells?

616 / 913

Category: Nature of Genes

616. Which term refers to a continuous segment of DNA that specifies one polypeptide chain?

617 / 913

Category: Nature of Genes

617. What is the smallest unit capable of undergoing a mutational change or recombination?

618 / 913

Category: Function of Genes

618. Which of the following is the smallest unit of DNA capable of mutation?

619 / 913

Category: Function of Genes

619. What do genes direct the synthesis of to control cellular activities?

620 / 913

Category: Function of Genes

620. Which of the following is NOT a function of a gene?

621 / 913

Category: Evidence from TMV experiments

621. What was the key finding of Fraenkel-Conrat and Singer's experiment with TMV?

622 / 913

Category: Evidence from TMV experiments

622. Which of the following properties must a molecule have to act as genetic material?

623 / 913

Category: Evidence from TMV experiments

623. What is the genetic material in the Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV)?

624 / 913

Category: Exceptions: RNA viruses

624. Which enzyme do retroviruses use to synthesize DNA from their RNA genome?

625 / 913

Category: Exceptions: RNA viruses

625. Who proposed the RNA world hypothesis suggesting RNA was the first genetic material on Earth?

626 / 913

Category: Exceptions: RNA viruses

626. In RNA viruses such as Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV), what acts as the hereditary material?

627 / 913

Category: DNA as predominant hereditary material

627. What property ensures that DNA can pass genetic information accurately across generations?

628 / 913

Category: DNA as predominant hereditary material

628. Which of the following is NOT an indirect evidence supporting DNA as genetic material?

629 / 913

Category: DNA as predominant hereditary material

629. Which radioactive element was used to label the DNA in Hershey and Chase's experiment?

630 / 913

Category: Nature of Genetic Material

630. In which virus was RNA first demonstrated to be the genetic material?

631 / 913

Category: Nature of Genetic Material

631. Which of the following is an indirect evidence supporting DNA as the genetic material?

632 / 913

Category: Nature of Genetic Material

632. Which experiment provided direct evidence that DNA is the genetic material by studying bacteriophages?

633 / 913

Category: Expression through proteins

633. What are constitutive genes responsible for producing?

634 / 913

Category: Expression through proteins

634. Which enzyme is produced when the lac operon is induced in $E. coli$?

635 / 913

Category: Expression through proteins

635. What is the role of an inducer in gene expression?

636 / 913

Category: Alleles & multiple allelism

636. A sudden heritable change in the DNA sequence leading to the formation of a new allele is called:

637 / 913

Category: Alleles & multiple allelism

637. The ABO blood group system in humans is an example of:

638 / 913

Category: Alleles & multiple allelism

638. What are alleles?

639 / 913

Category: Fixed position on chromosome

639. What ensures the transmission of genetic information during cell division?

640 / 913

Category: Fixed position on chromosome

640. Where are genes located on chromosomes?

641 / 913

Category: Fixed position on chromosome

641. What are genes made of?

642 / 913

Category: Information storage

642. What property ensures genes can pass from parents to offspring?

643 / 913

Category: Information storage

643. Which molecule is the predominant genetic material in most organisms?

644 / 913

Category: Information storage

644. What is a gene?

645 / 913

Category: Mutability

645. What happens if a codon is changed to a stop codon during mutation?

646 / 913

Category: Mutability

646. Which type of mutation involves the addition or deletion of a base, altering the reading frame of codons?

647 / 913

Category: Mutability

647. What is a mutation?

648 / 913

Category: Chemical stability

648. Why is DNA preferred over RNA as the genetic material for long-term storage?

649 / 913

Category: Chemical stability

649. What type of bonding stabilizes the DNA double helix?

650 / 913

Category: Chemical stability

650. Which of the following is a reason for DNA being more chemically stable than RNA?

651 / 913

Category: Ability to replicate

651. In which direction does DNA polymerase synthesize the new DNA strand during replication?

652 / 913

Category: Ability to replicate

652. Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix during replication?

653 / 913

Category: Ability to replicate

653. Which hypothesis of DNA replication states that the resulting daughter DNA molecules consist of one parental strand and one newly synthesized strand?

654 / 913

Category: Properties of Genes (Genetic Material)

654. What is the term for different forms of a single gene?

655 / 913

Category: Properties of Genes (Genetic Material)

655. What does functional specificity of genes mean?

656 / 913

Category: Properties of Genes (Genetic Material)

656. Where are karyogenes located?

657 / 913

Category: Recon – unit of recombination

657. Where are genes located in a cell?

658 / 913

Category: Recon – unit of recombination

658. Which of the following lists the sub-units of a gene in descending order of size?

659 / 913

Category: Recon – unit of recombination

659. What is a recon in genetics?

660 / 913

Category: Muton – unit of mutation

660. Sickle cell anaemia results from which type of mutation in the $\beta$-chain of hemoglobin?

661 / 913

Category: Muton – unit of mutation

661. Which type of mutation involves changing a purine to another purine or a pyrimidine to another pyrimidine?

662 / 913

Category: Muton – unit of mutation

662. What is the smallest unit of DNA capable of mutation?

663 / 913

Category: Cistron – unit of function

663. Among cistron, recon, and muton, which is the largest subunit of a gene?

664 / 913

Category: Cistron – unit of function

664. Which hypothesis evolved from the idea of "one gene-one enzyme" to emphasize that a cistron codes for a single polypeptide?

665 / 913

Category: Cistron – unit of function

665. What is a cistron?

666 / 913

Category: Gene Sub-units

666. What is the smallest unit of recombination in a gene?

667 / 913

Category: Gene Sub-units

667. Which gene sub-unit represents the smallest length of DNA capable of mutation?

668 / 913

Category: Gene Sub-units

668. What is the smallest functional unit of DNA that codes for a polypeptide?

669 / 913

Category: One gene–one polypeptide concept

669. Where are nuclear genes primarily located?

670 / 913

Category: One gene–one polypeptide concept

670. Which term refers to the smallest unit of DNA capable of undergoing mutation?

671 / 913

Category: One gene–one polypeptide concept

671. What is the basic premise of the one gene–one polypeptide hypothesis?

672 / 913

Category: Functional unit of heredity

672. Which of the following describes a muton?

673 / 913

Category: Functional unit of heredity

673. What does the one gene-one enzyme hypothesis state?

674 / 913

Category: Functional unit of heredity

674. Who coined the term "gene"?

675 / 913

Category: Mendelian factor

675. Which term refers to the segment of DNA that specifies one polypeptide chain?

676 / 913

Category: Mendelian factor

676. According to George W. Beadle and Edward L. Tatum's experiments, what does the one gene-one enzyme hypothesis propose?

677 / 913

Category: Mendelian factor

677. What is the term used to describe a unit of information that directs the activity of a cell or organism and is passed to its progeny?

678 / 913

Category: Definition & Concept of Gene

678. Which of the following correctly describes a muton?

679 / 913

Category: Definition & Concept of Gene

679. According to the one gene-one polypeptide hypothesis, what does a single gene code for?

680 / 913

Category: Definition & Concept of Gene

680. What is a gene?

681 / 913

Category: Genes

681. Which of the following best describes an allele?

682 / 913

Category: Genes

682. According to the central dogma of molecular biology, what is the correct sequence of genetic information flow?

683 / 913

Category: Genes

683. What is the smallest unit of DNA capable of undergoing a mutational change?

684 / 913

Category: CONCLUSION

684. (A) The International Rice Genome Sequencing Project (IRGSP) has successfully sequenced 100% of the rice genome.
(R) The use of shotgun sequencing and software like PHRED and PH ensures complete accuracy and coverage of the genome.

685 / 913

Category: SEQUENCING, FINISHING AND ANNOTATION

685. (A) The shotgun sequencing approach was chosen for the Rice Genome Project because it allowed for rapid and efficient sequencing of large genomes by breaking them into smaller, manageable fragments.
(R) The International Rice Genome Sequencing Project (IRGSP) aimed to sequence the rice genome in a collaborative manner to share resources and expertise among participating countries.

686 / 913

Category: RICE GENOME PROJECT

686. (A) The International Rice Genome Sequencing Project (IRGSP) includes participation from India, which is crucial given its status as a major rice producer and consumer.
(R) Functional genomics of rice will enable faster development of strains with desired traits like stress tolerance and high yield compared to traditional breeding methods.

687 / 913

Category: CONCLUSION

687. (A) The rice genome project has significantly contributed to improving agricultural biotechnology by enhancing crop yield and disease resistance.
(R) The rice genome serves as a reference for other cereal crops like wheat and maize due to its well-characterized structure.

688 / 913

Category: SEQUENCING, FINISHING AND ANNOTATION

688. (A) The Rice Genome Research Programme used a shotgun approach for sequencing the rice genome.
(R) The shotgun approach allows efficient sequencing of large genomes by breaking them into smaller fragments and reassembling them.

689 / 913

Category: RICE GENOME PROJECT

689. (A) The International Rice Genome Sequencing Project (IRGSP) involved scientists from 11 nations.

(R) Collaborative efforts allow sharing of expertise and resources, accelerating the completion of large-scale genome projects like the rice genome sequencing.

690 / 913

Category: CONCLUSION

690. (A) The rice genome is the third to be sequenced after the human and mouse genomes.

(R) The rice genome is smaller and better characterized compared to other cereal crops, making it easier to sequence.

691 / 913

Category: SEQUENCING, FINISHING AND ANNOTATION

691. (A) The Rice Genome Research Programme used a shotgun approach to sequence PAC or BAC clones.
(R) The shotgun approach involves sequencing random fragments of DNA and reassembling them using software like PHRED and PH.

692 / 913

Category: RICE GENOME PROJECT

692. (A) The rice genome is the smallest among major cereal crops.
(R) Rice has a genome size of approximately 400 to 430 Mb.

693 / 913

Category: Ethical Issues

693. (A) DNA fingerprinting can lead to privacy violations because genetic information can be misused without proper consent.
(R) Genetic data contains sensitive information about an individual's health predispositions and must be protected under strict ethical guidelines.

694 / 913

Category: Conservation genetics

694. (A) DNA fingerprinting using VNTR markers is highly effective in conservation genetics because it can detect genetic variations even in small populations.
(R) VNTR markers are highly polymorphic and show significant variability among individuals due to differences in the number of tandem repeats.

695 / 913

Category: Paternity disputes

695. (A) A child's DNA fingerprint must have at least one band matching with each parent's fingerprint for paternity to be confirmed.
(R) VNTRs are inherited in a Mendelian fashion, where the child receives half of their VNTR alleles from each parent.

696 / 913

Category: Forensics

696. (A) The autoradiography step in DNA fingerprinting is essential because it visualizes the unique banding pattern of an individual's DNA fragments hybridized with VNTR probes.
(R) Autoradiography detects radioactive probes bound to VNTR regions, revealing distinct band patterns that are unique to each individual except monozygotic twins.

697 / 913

Category: Applications

697. (A) DNA fingerprinting can uniquely identify individuals except monozygotic twins because the band patterns are identical in such cases.
(R) Monozygotic twins share the same genetic material, leading to identical VNTR profiles in DNA fingerprinting.

698 / 913

Category: Probe hybridisation

698. (A) Radioactive probes are used in Southern blotting because they provide higher resolution compared to fluorescent probes.
(R) Autoradiography detects the radioactive signal emitted by the probe after hybridisation, which helps in visualizing the DNA fragments.

699 / 913

Category: Gel electrophoresis

699. (A) In gel electrophoresis, agarose gel is preferred over polyacrylamide gel for separating large DNA fragments because it has larger pore sizes.
(R) The migration rate of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis is inversely proportional to the logarithm of their molecular weight.

700 / 913

Category: Restriction enzymes

700. (A) Restriction enzymes are used in DNA fingerprinting to cut DNA at specific sequences, generating fragments of varying lengths.
(R) The variation in fragment lengths is due to the presence of Variable Number Tandem Repeats (VNTRs) which are recognized by restriction enzymes.

701 / 913

Category: Technique

701. (A) The uniqueness of DNA fingerprinting in individuals arises from the hypervariability of VNTR regions.
(R) Autoradiography detects hybridised DNA fragments by exposing X-ray film to radioactive probes bound to VNTR sequences.

702 / 913

Category: Polymorphism

702. (A) The probability of two unrelated individuals having identical DNA fingerprints is extremely low due to the high polymorphism of VNTRs and STRs.
(R) VNTRs and STRs exhibit a high degree of length variation among individuals because they are non-coding regions with no selective pressure.

703 / 913

Category: Basis

703. (A) The uniqueness of an individual's DNA fingerprint arises due to the presence of variable number tandem repeats (VNTRs).
(R) VNTRs are inherited from both parents and exhibit high variability in the population.

704 / 913

Category: DNA Fingerprinting

704. (A) DNA fingerprinting can uniquely identify individuals because VNTR patterns are inherited from parents and are highly polymorphic.
(R) Autoradiography in DNA fingerprinting detects radioactive probes hybridized to VNTR sequences, revealing unique band patterns.

705 / 913

Category: Ethical Issues

705. (A) DNA fingerprinting databases should be accessible to all researchers to promote scientific advancement.
(R) Unrestricted access to DNA databases ensures transparency and prevents misuse of genetic information.

706 / 913

Category: Conservation genetics

706. (A) DNA fingerprinting is used to monitor genetic diversity in endangered species populations.
(R) It helps assess the variation of VNTRs and SNPs, which are crucial for maintaining resilient species.

707 / 913

Category: Paternity disputes

707. (A) DNA fingerprinting can conclusively determine paternity by comparing the VNTR patterns of the child and potential father.
(R) VNTR sequences are inherited from both parents, making them useful for establishing biological relationships.

708 / 913

Category: Forensics

708. (A) DNA fingerprinting can be performed using any human cell because all cells of an individual contain identical DNA sequences.
(R) The VNTRs in DNA are unique to each individual, making them useful for forensic identification.

709 / 913

Category: Applications

709. (A) DNA fingerprinting can be used to settle paternity disputes because it identifies unique patterns in an individual's DNA.
(R) DNA fingerprinting relies on the analysis of VNTRs which are highly variable among individuals except identical twins.

710 / 913

Category: Probe hybridisation

710. (A) The specificity of probe hybridisation in DNA fingerprinting depends on the complementary base pairing between the probe and target DNA sequence.
(R) DNA probes used in hybridisation are designed to bind specifically to VNTR regions due to their high polymorphism.

711 / 913

Category: Gel electrophoresis

711. (A) In gel electrophoresis, larger DNA fragments migrate faster towards the positive electrode than smaller fragments.
(R) The migration speed of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis is inversely proportional to their size due to the sieving effect of the gel matrix.

712 / 913

Category: Restriction enzymes

712. (A) Restriction enzymes are used in DNA fingerprinting to cut DNA at specific sequences.
(R) Each restriction enzyme recognizes a unique palindromic sequence in the DNA.

713 / 913

Category: Technique

713. (A) DNA fingerprinting is highly useful in forensic applications because it can identify individuals from extremely small amounts of biological material.
(R) Polymorphic repetitive DNA sequences like microsatellites and minisatellites vary among individuals, making them ideal for identification.

714 / 913

Category: Polymorphism

714. (A) Short Tandem Repeats (STRs) are used in DNA fingerprinting because they exhibit high polymorphism.
(R) STRs consist of repeating sequences of 2-6 base pairs, and the number of repeats varies among individuals.

715 / 913

Category: Basis

715. (A) DNA fingerprinting relies on polymorphisms in non-coding regions of DNA.
(R) Polymorphic sequences like VNTRs are highly repetitive and vary in number between individuals, making them unique identifiers.

716 / 913

Category: DNA Fingerprinting

716. (A) Restriction endonucleases are used to cut DNA into fragments during DNA fingerprinting because they recognize specific sequences.
(R) Each restriction enzyme cuts DNA at a unique recognition site, allowing for precise fragmentation of the sample.

717 / 913

Category: Ethical Issues

717. (A) DNA fingerprinting can lead to privacy violations because it contains sensitive personal information.
(R) DNA data can be misused by unauthorized individuals or organizations.

718 / 913

Category: Conservation genetics

718. (A) DNA fingerprinting is useful in conservation genetics for tracking genetic diversity in endangered species.
(R) VNTRs are unique to individuals and help identify relatedness among species.

719 / 913

Category: Paternity disputes

719. (A) DNA fingerprinting is used to resolve paternity disputes because each individual's DNA is unique.
(R) VNTR sequences in DNA show polymorphism and are inherited from parents, making them useful for identifying biological relationships.

720 / 913

Category: Forensics

720. (A) VNTR sequences are used in DNA fingerprinting because they are unique to individuals.
(R) VNTR sequences show polymorphism between individuals.

721 / 913

Category: Applications

721. (A) DNA fingerprinting can be used to settle paternity disputes.
(R) Because it compares the unique band patterns of DNA fragments between individuals.

722 / 913

Category: Probe hybridisation

722. (A) Radioactive probes are used in DNA fingerprinting to detect specific DNA sequences.
(R) The probes hybridise with complementary VNTR sequences on the membrane.

723 / 913

Category: Gel electrophoresis

723. (A) Smaller DNA fragments move faster than larger ones during gel electrophoresis.
(R) The speed of DNA fragment movement in gel electrophoresis is inversely proportional to their size.

724 / 913

Category: Restriction enzymes

724. (A) Restriction enzymes are used to cut DNA into fragments during DNA fingerprinting.
(R) Restriction enzymes recognize specific nucleotide sequences and cleave the DNA at these sites.

725 / 913

Category: Technique

725. (A) DNA fingerprinting involves the use of VNTRs to identify individuals.
(R) VNTRs are short repetitive nucleotide sequences unique to each individual.

726 / 913

Category: Polymorphism

726. (A) DNA fingerprinting relies on polymorphism to identify individuals uniquely.
(R) Polymorphism refers to variations in DNA sequences among individuals at specific loci.

727 / 913

Category: Basis

727. (A) DNA fingerprinting is used to identify individuals based on their unique DNA patterns.
(R) DNA fingerprinting relies on analyzing variations in short tandem repeats (STRs), which vary between individuals.

728 / 913

Category: DNA Fingerprinting

728. (A) DNA fingerprinting can be used to identify individuals who may have carried out crimes such as rape.
(R) DNA fingerprinting relies on the uniqueness of VNTR sequences in an individual's DNA.

729 / 913

Category: THE HUMAN GENOME PROJECT (HGP)

729. (A) The Human Genome Project aimed to identify SNPs (single nucleotide polymorphisms) because they are useful in tracing human ancestry and locating disease-associated sequences.
(R) SNPs represent variations at single base pairs and occur in approximately 1.4 million locations in the human genome.

730 / 913

Category: THE HUMAN GENOME PROJECT (HGP)

730. (A) The Human Genome Project aimed to sequence the entire human genome, including both coding and non-coding regions.
(R) Non-coding sequences have no functional role in the genome.

731 / 913

Category: THE HUMAN GENOME PROJECT (HGP)

731. (A) The Human Genome Project aimed to identify all the genes in human DNA.
(R) The project sequenced approximately 3 billion chemical base pairs that make up human DNA.

732 / 913

Category: Operon Concept for Transcriptional Regulation

732. (A) In the absence of tryptophan, the trp operon is transcribed because the repressor protein cannot bind to the operator.
(R) The trp repressor is synthesized in an inactive form and only becomes active upon binding to tryptophan.

733 / 913

Category: Regulation of Gene Expression

733. (A) In the presence of excess histidine, the production of histidine-synthesizing enzymes in $E. coli$ is downregulated through feedback repression.
(R) The histidine acts as a corepressor and binds to the repressor protein, enabling it to inhibit transcription by blocking the operator region of the histidine operon.

734 / 913

Category: GENE EXPRESSION IN PROKARYOTES

734. (A) The presence of lactose induces the expression of $\beta$-galactosidase in *E. coli*, while the absence of tryptophan derepresses the trp operon.
(R) Both the lac operon and trp operon are regulated by allosteric proteins that bind to the operator region, but they function oppositely—one as an activator and the other as a repressor.

735 / 913

Category: Operon Concept for Transcriptional Regulation

735. (A) In the lac operon of $E.\ coli$, when lactose is present, transcription of the structural genes occurs.
(R) Lactose acts as an inducer by binding to the repressor protein, preventing it from binding to the operator region.

736 / 913

Category: Regulation of Gene Expression

736. (A) The lac operon in $E. coli$ is induced by the presence of lactose.
(R) Lactose acts as an inducer by binding to the repressor protein and preventing it from binding to the operator region.

737 / 913

Category: GENE EXPRESSION IN PROKARYOTES

737. (A) The lac operon in E. coli is an example of an inducible operon.
(R) The presence of lactose induces the synthesis of $\beta$-galactosidase by binding to the repressor and preventing it from inhibiting transcription.

738 / 913

Category: Operon Concept for Transcriptional Regulation

738. (A) The lac operon is an example of an inducible operon.
(R) The lac operon is turned on only when lactose is present in the environment.

739 / 913

Category: Regulation of Gene Expression

739. (A) The presence of lactose induces the production of $\beta$-galactosidase in E. coli.
(R) Lactose acts as an inducer by binding to the repressor protein and deactivating it, allowing transcription of the lac operon.

740 / 913

Category: GENE EXPRESSION IN PROKARYOTES

740. (A) The enzyme $\beta$-galactosidase is produced when lactose is present in $E. coli$ cells.
(R) Lactose acts as an inducer for the lac operon, triggering the production of $\beta$-galactosidase to metabolize it.

741 / 913

Category: STRUCTURE OF EUKARYOTIC CHROMOSOME (PACKAGING OF DNA HELIX)

741. (A) The histone octamer consists of two molecules each of H2A, H2B, H3, and H4, forming the core particle around which DNA is wrapped.
(R) The linker histone H1 stabilizes the winding of DNA around the histone octamer and helps in the formation of higher-order chromatin structures.

742 / 913

Category: STRUCTURE OF EUKARYOTIC CHROMOSOME (PACKAGING OF DNA HELIX)

742. (A) The nucleosome core particle consists of DNA wrapped around an octamer of histone proteins.
(R) The histone octamer includes two molecules each of $H_2A$, $H_2B$, $H_3$, and $H_4$ which are rich in lysine and arginine.

743 / 913

Category: STRUCTURE OF EUKARYOTIC CHROMOSOME (PACKAGING OF DNA HELIX)

743. (A) The nucleosome core particle consists of DNA wrapped around a histone octamer.
(R) The histone octamer is composed of two molecules each of $H_2A$, $H_2B$, $H_3$, and $H_4$.

744 / 913

Category: Mutations and Protein Structure

744. (A) A mutation in the operator region of the lac operon can lead to constitutive expression of lacZ, lacY, and lacA genes even in the absence of lactose.
(R) The repressor protein binds to the operator only when lactose is absent, preventing transcription of the structural genes.

745 / 913

Category: Mechanism of Translation (Protein Synthesis)

745. (A) Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases ensure the correct pairing of amino acids with their corresponding tRNAs by catalyzing both the activation of amino acids and their transfer to tRNA.
(R) The specificity of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases is crucial for preventing errors in translation, as incorrect amino acid attachment would lead to faulty protein synthesis.

746 / 913

Category: Mechanism of mRNA Processing in Eukaryotes

746. (A) The addition of a methylated guanine cap at the 5' end of hnRNA prevents its degradation by exonucleases and enhances translation initiation.
(R) The $G-cap$ provides a binding site for the ribosome during translation initiation and protects the mRNA from 5' to 3' exonuclease activity.

747 / 913

Category: Post-transcriptional Processing of Newly Formed mRNA

747. (A) The presence of introns in eukaryotic hnRNA necessitates splicing for functional mRNA formation.
(R) Introns are non-coding sequences that must be removed to allow proper translation of exons into proteins.

748 / 913

Category: CENTRAL DOGMA

748. (A) The process of reverse transcription violates the classical central dogma of molecular biology.
(R) Reverse transcription involves the synthesis of DNA from an RNA template using the enzyme reverse transcriptase, as observed in retroviruses.

749 / 913

Category: Mutations and Protein Structure

749. (A) A single nucleotide substitution in the $\beta$-globin gene can lead to sickle cell anemia by changing a glutamic acid codon to a valine codon.
(R) The change from a hydrophilic amino acid (glutamic acid) to a hydrophobic one (valine) disrupts the normal structure of hemoglobin, leading to the formation of sickle-shaped red blood cells.

750 / 913

Category: Mechanism of Translation (Protein Synthesis)

750. (A) The termination codons UAA, UAG, and UGA do not code for any amino acid.
(R) Release factors recognize termination codons and facilitate the release of the polypeptide chain from the ribosome.

751 / 913

Category: Mechanism of mRNA Processing in Eukaryotes

751. (A) The poly A tail at the 3' end of eukaryotic mRNA is essential for its stability and nuclear export.
(R) The poly A tail prevents rapid degradation of mRNA by exonucleases and facilitates binding to nuclear export proteins.

752 / 913

Category: Post-transcriptional Processing of Newly Formed mRNA

752. (A) Eukaryotic mRNA requires post-transcriptional processing to become functional.
(R) Eukaryotic genes contain introns that need to be removed and exons joined through splicing.

753 / 913

Category: CENTRAL DOGMA

753. (A) Retroviruses follow the central dogma by synthesizing DNA from RNA using reverse transcriptase.
(R) Reverse transcription is an exception to the central dogma, where genetic information flows from RNA to DNA.

754 / 913

Category: Mutations and Protein Structure

754. (A) A point mutation in the DNA sequence always results in a change to the amino acid sequence of the protein.
(R) Due to degeneracy of the genetic code, some point mutations may not change the amino acid sequence.

755 / 913

Category: Mechanism of Translation (Protein Synthesis)

755. (A) The codon AUG codes for methionine and also serves as the initiation codon in translation.
(R) In prokaryotes, formylated methionine is used to initiate the polypeptide chain due to the presence of the enzyme transformylase.

756 / 913

Category: Mechanism of mRNA Processing in Eukaryotes

756. (A) The $G-cap$ at the 5' end of eukaryotic mRNA prevents its degradation.
(R) The $G-cap$ provides a binding site for ribosomes during translation initiation.

757 / 913

Category: Post-transcriptional Processing of Newly Formed mRNA

757. (A) Eukaryotic mRNA requires post-transcriptional processing to become functional.
(R) Eukaryotic genes contain introns and exons, requiring splicing for mature mRNA formation.

758 / 913

Category: CENTRAL DOGMA

758. (A) RNA polymerase synthesizes mRNA using a DNA template strand.
(R) The sense strand of DNA serves as the template for transcription.

759 / 913

Category: Errors in DNA Replication and its Repair

759. (A) The initial error rate during DNA replication is about three errors per 100,000 base pairs, which would result in mutations affecting approximately 3% of the cell's proteins if left uncorrected.
(R) DNA polymerase complex has proofreading activity that removes mismatched bases and replaces them with correct ones, reducing the final error rate to one error per billion base pairs.

760 / 913

Category: Mechanism of DNA Replication

760. (A) The lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously because DNA polymerase can only synthesize DNA in the 5' to 3' direction.
(R) The enzyme primase synthesizes RNA primers for both leading and lagging strands, but these primers are only removed and replaced by DNA on the lagging strand.

761 / 913

Category: REPLICATION OF DNA

761. (A) In the Meselson and Stahl experiment, after two generations of replication in $^{14}$N medium, the DNA molecules formed are of two types: one hybrid ($^{15}$N-$^{14}$N) and one light ($^{14}$N-$^{14}$N).

(R) Semi-conservative replication results in each daughter DNA molecule consisting of one parental strand and one newly synthesized strand.

762 / 913

Category: Errors in DNA Replication and its Repair

762. (A) The final error rate in DNA replication is one error per billion base pairs due to proofreading by DNA polymerase.
(R) DNA polymerase has exonuclease activity that removes incorrect nucleotides during replication.

763 / 913

Category: Mechanism of DNA Replication

763. (A) During DNA replication, the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously as Okazaki fragments.
(R) DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides in the 5’ to 3’ direction.

764 / 913

Category: REPLICATION OF DNA

764. (A) In semi-conservative replication, each daughter DNA molecule contains one parental strand and one newly synthesized strand.
(R) The Meselson-Stahl experiment provided evidence for semi-conservative replication by demonstrating that DNA strands separate and act as templates for new complementary strands.

765 / 913

Category: Errors in DNA Replication and its Repair

765. (A) The initial error rate in DNA replication is approximately three errors per 100,000 base pairs.
(R) Repair enzymes like nucleases excise defective DNA segments and replace them with correct nucleotides, reducing the error rate to one per billion base pairs.

766 / 913

Category: Mechanism of DNA Replication

766. (A) DNA polymerase synthesizes the new DNA strand in the 5' to 3' direction.
(R) DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the 3'-OH end of the growing DNA strand.

767 / 913

Category: REPLICATION OF DNA

767. (A) DNA replication is a semi-conservative process.
(R) In semi-conservative replication, each new DNA molecule consists of one original strand and one newly synthesized strand.

768 / 913

Category: snRNA, snoRNA, miRNA, siRNA

768. (A) Small nuclear RNA (snRNA) plays a crucial role in the splicing of pre-mRNA to form mature mRNA.
(R) snRNA is exclusively found in the nucleolus of eukaryotic cells and processes rRNA.

769 / 913

Category: rRNA – ribosomal, structural

769. (A) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is the most stable form of RNA due to its high molecular weight and structural role in ribosomes.
(R) The stability of rRNA is attributed to its ability to bind mRNA and tRNA to ribosomes through $Mg^{2+}$ linkage.

770 / 913

Category: tRNA – adaptor molecule (clover-leaf model)

770. (A) The anticodon loop of tRNA contains three unpaired bases that bind with the complementary codon on mRNA.
(R) The anticodon loop is essential for the correct pairing of amino acids with mRNA codons during protein synthesis.

771 / 913

Category: mRNA – messenger

771. (A) The polyadenylation of mRNA in eukaryotes increases its stability.
(R) The poly-A tail protects the mRNA from exonucleolytic degradation by providing a barrier at the 3' end.

772 / 913

Category: Z-DNA

772. (A) Z-DNA is the thinnest among all DNA forms due to its left-handed helical sense and zig-zag phosphate backbone arrangement.
(R) The repeating dinucleotide unit in Z-DNA results in fewer base pairs per helical turn, reducing its diameter compared to B-DNA.

773 / 913

Category: D-DNA

773. (A) D-DNA has only 8 base pairs per helical turn, which makes it structurally distinct from other forms of DNA.
(R) The absence of guanine in D-DNA reduces the number of hydrogen bonds, leading to fewer base pairs per turn.

774 / 913

Category: C-DNA

774. (A) C-DNA is observed under specific conditions due to its lower stability compared to B-DNA.
(R) C-DNA has a right-handed helix with 9.33 base pairs per turn, resulting in weaker hydrogen bonding between base pairs than in B-DNA.

775 / 913

Category: B-DNA (common)

775. (A) The major groove in B-DNA is wider than the minor groove due to the specific arrangement of base pairs and the resulting tilt of the sugar-phosphate backbone.
(R) The major groove provides more access to proteins for binding compared to the minor groove because its larger dimensions allow better interaction with protein side chains.

776 / 913

Category: A-DNA

776. (A) A-DNA is more stable than B-DNA under dehydrated conditions due to fewer bound water molecules stabilizing its structure.
(R) The phosphate groups in A-DNA bind fewer water molecules than those in B-DNA, reducing overall hydration and increasing stability under low-water conditions.

777 / 913

Category: Structure of RNA

777. (A) The anticodon loop in tRNA contains 7 bases and binds with the complementary codon on mRNA.
(R) The ribosomal binding loop in tRNA helps in attaching the amino acid to the growing polypeptide chain.

778 / 913

Category: Variants of Double Helix DNA

778. (A) Z-DNA is more stable than B-DNA under physiological conditions due to its left-handed helical structure.
(R) The zig-zag phosphate backbone and alternating sugar orientation in Z-DNA contribute to its higher stability compared to B-DNA.

779 / 913

Category: pNA Model as Proposed by Watson and Crick

779. (A) The A-form of DNA has a wider and shorter helical structure compared to the B-form due to its higher number of base pairs per turn.
(R) A-DNA has 11 base pairs per helical turn while B-DNA has 10.4 base pairs per turn.

780 / 913

Category: Variants of DNA

780. (A) Z-DNA is more stable than B-DNA under physiological conditions.
(R) Z-DNA has a left-handed helical structure with 12 base pairs per turn, while B-DNA has a right-handed helix with 10 base pairs per turn.

781 / 913

Category: Chromatin → chromosome condensation

781. (A) The 30 nm chromatin fiber forms due to the interaction between nucleosomes and histone $H_1$, leading to a solenoid structure.
(R) Histone $H_1$ binds to linker DNA and facilitates the coiling of nucleosomes into a helical arrangement.

782 / 913

Category: Histones (H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4)

782. (A) The histone $H1$ is essential for the formation of the nucleosome core particle.
(R) The nucleosome core particle consists of an octamer of histones ($H2A$, $H2B$, $H3$, $H4$) around which DNA is wrapped.

783 / 913

Category: Nucleosome structure

783. (A) Histone $H_1$ is an integral part of the nucleosome core particle.
(R) Histone $H_1$ binds to linker DNA and stabilizes the 30 nm solenoid structure.

784 / 913

Category: DNA Packaging in Eukaryotes

784. (A) The formation of a 30 nm solenoid structure in chromatin requires the presence of histone $H_1$ to stabilize the coiling of the 10 nm fiber.
(R) Histone $H_1$ cross-links nucleosomes and facilitates the folding of the 10 nm fiber into the 30 nm solenoid structure.

785 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules

785. (A) In a sample of DNA from a particular species, the ratio $(A + T)/(G + C)$ is found to be 1.5. The molar amounts of thymine and cytosine are 30% and 20% respectively.
(R) According to Chargaff’s rules, $A + G = T + C$ and the base composition varies between species.

786 / 913

Category: Major and minor grooves

786. (A) The major groove of DNA is more crucial for sequence-specific protein binding than the minor groove because it provides greater chemical information due to its wider width and exposed base edges.
(R) The major groove allows proteins to form hydrogen bonds with both the nitrogenous bases and the sugar-phosphate backbone, while the minor groove primarily permits interactions with the phosphate groups.

787 / 913

Category: H-bonding & base pairing

787. (A) The denaturation temperature (melting point) of a DNA molecule is higher for sequences with a higher G-C content.
(R) G-C base pairs have three hydrogen bonds, whereas A-T base pairs have only two.

788 / 913

Category: Nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C)

788. (A) In a DNA molecule with 30% adenine content, the cytosine content must be 20%.
(R) According to Chargaff's rules, the molar ratio of guanine to cytosine is always 1 ($G/C = 1$) and $A + G = T + C$.

789 / 913

Category: Sugar-phosphate backbone

789. (A) The 3'-OH group of a polynucleotide chain is essential for the formation of phosphodiester bonds during DNA replication.
(R) The phosphodiester bond is formed between the 5'-phosphate group of one nucleotide and the 3'-OH group of another nucleotide.

790 / 913

Category: Double-helix model (Watson & Crick)

790. (A) In the B-DNA double helix, the major groove is wider than the minor groove because the glycosidic bonds of base pairs are not diametrically opposite to each other.
(R) The major groove in DNA provides more accessible hydrogen bonding sites for protein recognition compared to the minor groove.

791 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules for Base Pairing in DNA

791. (A) In a given DNA molecule, if the percentage of adenine is 20%, then the percentage of thymine will also be 20%.
(R) According to Chargaff’s rules, the amount of adenine is always equal to that of thymine due to complementary base pairing.

792 / 913

Category: Structure of DNA

792. (A) Z-DNA can form only in sequences with alternating purines and pyrimidines due to its left-handed helical structure.
(R) The zig-zag backbone of Z-DNA causes steric hindrance unless the bases alternate between purines and pyrimidines.

793 / 913

Category: Nucleic Acids

793. (A) The denaturation of DNA leads to the separation of its two strands, but the hydrogen bonds between complementary bases remain intact.
(R) Hydrogen bonds between A-T base pairs are weaker than those between G-C base pairs due to fewer hydrogen bonds in A-T pairing.

794 / 913

Category: snRNA, snoRNA, miRNA, siRNA

794. (A) Small nuclear RNA (snRNA) is involved in the splicing of pre-mRNA
(R) snRNA forms part of the spliceosome complex that removes introns from pre-mRNA.

795 / 913

Category: rRNA – ribosomal, structural

795. (A) rRNA is the most stable form of RNA because it has extensive secondary structures and binds with ribosomal proteins to form ribosomes.
(R) The stability of rRNA is due to its single-stranded nature and presence of unpaired bases allowing it to fold into complex secondary structures.

796 / 913

Category: tRNA – adaptor molecule (clover-leaf model)

796. (A) The clover-leaf structure of tRNA is stabilized by hydrogen bonds between nitrogenous bases.
(R) Hydrogen bonds provide the necessary stability to maintain the functional three-dimensional structure of tRNA, which is essential for its role as an adaptor molecule in protein synthesis.

797 / 913

Category: mRNA – messenger

797. (A) Eukaryotic mRNA undergoes splicing to remove introns and join exons.
(R) Introns are non-coding regions that do not contribute to the final protein product.

798 / 913

Category: Z-DNA

798. (A) Z-DNA has a left-handed double helix structure with alternating sugar residue orientations.
(R) The repeating unit in Z-DNA is a dinucleotide due to the alternating orientation of adjacent sugar residues.

799 / 913

Category: D-DNA

799. (A) D-DNA is unstable because it lacks guanine base pairs.
(R) Guanine contributes to hydrogen bonding and stacking interactions, which stabilize DNA structure.

800 / 913

Category: C-DNA

800. (A) C-DNA is less stable than B-DNA due to its narrower diameter and fewer base pairs per turn.

(R) The distance between two base pairs in C-DNA is $3.3 \, \text{Å}$, which reduces the stacking interactions compared to B-DNA.

801 / 913

Category: B-DNA (common)

801. (A) B-DNA is the most stable form of DNA under physiological conditions.

(R) The right-handed helical structure and Watson-Crick base pairing contribute to the stability of B-DNA.

802 / 913

Category: A-DNA

802. (A) A-DNA has a wider and shorter helix compared to B-DNA.
(R) A-DNA forms under conditions of dehydration due to fewer water molecules bound to phosphate groups.

803 / 913

Category: Structure of RNA

803. (A) tRNA has a cloverleaf structure due to the presence of hydrogen bonds between complementary bases.
(R) The anticodon loop of tRNA binds with the complementary codon on mRNA through hydrogen bonding.

804 / 913

Category: Variants of Double Helix DNA

804. (A) Z-DNA has a left-handed helical structure with 12 base pairs per turn.
(R) The repeating unit in Z-DNA is a dinucleotide due to the alternating orientation of adjacent sugar residues.

805 / 913

Category: pNA Model as Proposed by Watson and Crick

805. (A) The B-DNA form has 10 base pairs per helical turn and a diameter of 20 Å.
(R) The B-DNA is the most stable structure under physiological conditions.

806 / 913

Category: Variants of DNA

806. (A) B-DNA is the most stable form of DNA under physiological conditions.
(R) B-DNA has a right-handed helical structure with 10 base pairs per turn, which provides stability compared to other variants like Z-DNA.

807 / 913

Category: Chromatin → chromosome condensation

807. (A) The 30 nm chromatin fiber is formed by the coiling of nucleosomes into a solenoid structure.
(R) The solenoid model explains how nucleosomes fold to form a compact 30 nm fiber, which is stabilized by histone H1.

808 / 913

Category: Histones (H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4)

808. (A) Histone $H1$ is not part of the nucleosome core particle.
(R) The nucleosome core particle consists of an octamer of histones $(H2A, H2B, H3, H4)_2$ without $H1$.

809 / 913

Category: Nucleosome structure

809. (A) Histone $H_1$ plays a crucial role in stabilizing the 30 nm solenoid structure of chromatin.
(R) Histone $H_1$ binds to the linker DNA and helps in compacting nucleosomes into higher-order structures.

810 / 913

Category: DNA Packaging in Eukaryotes

810. (A) Histone H1 is essential for the formation of the 30 nm solenoid fiber during DNA packaging.
(R) Histone H1 acts as a linker between nucleosomes and stabilizes the solenoid structure.

811 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules

811. (A) The base ratio $\frac{A + T}{G + C}$ varies from species to species.
(R) In human DNA, the percentage of adenine is equal to thymine ($29.4\%$ each), while guanine and cytosine are $19.9\%$ and $19.8\%$ respectively.

812 / 913

Category: Major and minor grooves

812. (A) The major groove in DNA provides more accessible chemical information than the minor groove.
(R) The major groove has exposed hydrogen bond donors and acceptors from nitrogenous bases, allowing specific sequence recognition by proteins.

813 / 913

Category: H-bonding & base pairing

813. (A) The stability of the DNA double helix is primarily due to hydrogen bonding between complementary base pairs.
(R) Hydrogen bonds are stronger than covalent bonds and provide permanent stability to the DNA structure.

814 / 913

Category: Sugar-phosphate backbone

814. (A) The sugar-phosphate backbone of a polynucleotide chain has distinct 3' and 5' ends due to the presence of free hydroxyl and phosphate groups.
(R) Each nucleotide is linked by a $phosphodiester bond$ formed between the 5' phosphate of one nucleotide and the 3' hydroxyl of another.

815 / 913

Category: Double-helix model (Watson & Crick)

815. (A) The double helix of B-DNA has a major groove and a minor groove that alternate along its length.
(R) The major groove is wider (~$22 \text{\AA}$) than the minor groove (~$12 \text{\AA}$), allowing proteins to interact more easily with the bases in the major groove.

816 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules for Base Pairing in DNA

816. (A) In a DNA molecule from human liver cells, the percentage of guanine is 19.9%.
(R) According to Chargaff’s rules, the amount of guanine in DNA equals the amount of cytosine.

817 / 913

Category: Structure of DNA

817. (A) The B-form of DNA is the most stable and biologically active form under physiological conditions.
(R) The B-form of DNA has 10 base pairs per turn, optimal hydrogen bonding, and a diameter of $20 A$, making it energetically favorable.

818 / 913

Category: Nucleic Acids

818. (A) In DNA, the two polynucleotide chains are held together by hydrogen bonds between complementary bases.
(R) The hydrogen bonds form because purines always pair with pyrimidines in a specific manner (A-T and G-C).

819 / 913

Category: snRNA, snoRNA, miRNA, siRNA

819. (A) Small nuclear RNA (snRNA) is involved in the processing of pre-mRNA.
(R) snRNA is found only in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and assists in splicing.

820 / 913

Category: rRNA – ribosomal, structural

820. (A) rRNA is the most abundant form of RNA in a cell.
(R) rRNA constitutes about 80% of the total RNA in a cell and plays a structural role in ribosomes.

821 / 913

Category: tRNA – adaptor molecule (clover-leaf model)

821. (A) The clover-leaf model of tRNA includes an anticodon loop that pairs with the mRNA codon during protein synthesis.
(R) The anticodon loop of tRNA contains three unpaired bases complementary to the mRNA codon.

822 / 913

Category: mRNA – messenger

822. (A) Prokaryotic mRNA is generally polycistronic and less stable compared to eukaryotic mRNA.
(R) Eukaryotic mRNA undergoes post-transcriptional modifications such as capping and tailing, which enhance its stability.

823 / 913

Category: Z-DNA

823. (A) Z-DNA is a left-handed double helix with a zig-zag phosphate backbone.
(R) The repeating unit in Z-DNA is a dinucleotide due to alternating sugar residue orientations.

824 / 913

Category: D-DNA

824. (A) D-DNA has 8 base pairs per helical turn.
(R) D-DNA is devoid of guanine base.

825 / 913

Category: C-DNA

825. (A) C-DNA has a right-handed double-helix structure.
(R) The distance between two base pairs in C-DNA is $3.3 \, \text{Å}$.

826 / 913

Category: B-DNA (common)

826. (A) B-DNA has 10 base pairs per turn and a diameter of 20 Å.
(R) The antiparallel arrangement of the two strands in B-DNA contributes to its stability.

827 / 913

Category: A-DNA

827. (A) A-DNA has a wider and shorter helix compared to B-DNA.
(R) A-DNA has 11 base pairs per helical turn while B-DNA has 10.

828 / 913

Category: Structure of RNA

828. (A) RNA contains uracil instead of thymine.
(R) Uracil pairs with adenine in RNA, similar to how thymine pairs with adenine in DNA.

829 / 913

Category: Variants of Double Helix DNA

829. (A) Z-DNA is a left-handed double helix.
(R) Z-DNA has a zig-zag phosphate backbone due to alternating sugar orientations.

830 / 913

Category: pNA Model as Proposed by Watson and Crick

830. (A) The distance between successive nucleotides in B-DNA is 3.4 Å as proposed by Watson and Crick.
(R) B-DNA has 10 base pairs per turn of the helix with a helical rise of 3.4 Å per base pair.

831 / 913

Category: Variants of DNA

831. (A) Z-DNA is a left-handed double helix.
(R) The sugar-phosphate backbone in Z-DNA has a zig-zag arrangement.

832 / 913

Category: Chromatin → chromosome condensation

832. (A) The nucleosome is the basic unit of chromatin structure.
(R) Each nucleosome consists of DNA wrapped around a histone octamer ($H_2A$, $H_2B$, $H_3$, and $H_4$).

833 / 913

Category: Histones (H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4)

833. (A) The histone octamer in a nucleosome consists of two molecules each of H2A, H2B, H3, and H4.
(R) Histones are rich in basic amino acids like lysine and arginine, which facilitate DNA binding.

834 / 913

Category: Nucleosome structure

834. (A) The nucleosome core particle consists of 146 base pairs of DNA wrapped around a histone octamer.
(R) The histone octamer is composed of two molecules each of $H2A$, $H2B$, $H3$, and $H4$.

835 / 913

Category: DNA Packaging in Eukaryotes

835. (A) A nucleosome consists of DNA wrapped around a histone octamer.
(R) The histone octamer includes two molecules each of histones $H_2A$, $H_2B$, $H_3$, and $H_4$.

836 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules

836. (A) In a DNA molecule, the amount of adenine is always equal to the amount of thymine.
(R) Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine, ensuring their equimolar presence in DNA.

837 / 913

Category: Major and minor grooves

837. (A) The double helix of DNA has a major groove and a minor groove that alternate along the length of the molecule.
(R) The major groove is wider than the minor groove due to the specific arrangement of base pairs and the sugar-phosphate backbone.

838 / 913

Category: H-bonding & base pairing

838. (A) Guanine forms three hydrogen bonds with cytosine in DNA.
(R) The complementary base pairing in DNA follows Chargaff's rules.

839 / 913

Category: Nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C)

839. (A) Adenine always pairs with thymine in DNA.
(R) Adenine and thymine form three hydrogen bonds between them.

840 / 913

Category: Sugar-phosphate backbone

840. (A) The sugar-phosphate backbone of a polynucleotide chain has alternating sugar and phosphate units.
(R) This is because adjacent nucleotides are joined by $phosphodiester bonds$.

841 / 913

Category: Double-helix model (Watson & Crick)

841. (A) In the Watson-Crick model of DNA, adenine pairs with thymine via 2 hydrogen bonds.
(R) Adenine and thymine form complementary base pairs in DNA due to their specific hydrogen bonding pattern.

842 / 913

Category: Chargaff’s Rules for Base Pairing in DNA

842. (A) In a DNA molecule, the amount of adenine is always equal to the amount of thymine.
(R) Adenine forms hydrogen bonds with thymine and guanine forms hydrogen bonds with cytosine.

843 / 913

Category: Structure of DNA

843. (A) DNA is a double helix structure with two antiparallel polynucleotide chains.
(R) The two strands of DNA are held together by hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs.

844 / 913

Category: Nucleic Acids

844. (A) DNA is a double-stranded molecule.
(R) In DNA, adenine pairs with thymine and guanine pairs with cytosine.

845 / 913

Category: Nature of Genes

845. (A) A single muton can span multiple cistrons when considering overlapping genes in viruses.
(R) In overlapping genes, the same DNA sequence can code for more than one polypeptide by using different reading frames.

846 / 913

Category: Function of Genes

846. (A) A gene must undergo mutation to qualify as a functional unit of heredity.
(R) Mutations introduce variability, which is essential for evolution and adaptation.

847 / 913

Category: Evidence from TMV experiments

847. (A) In the TMV reconstitution experiments by Fraenkel-Conrat and Singer, the progeny viruses always exhibited characteristics corresponding to the RNA donor strain rather than the protein donor strain.
(R) RNA can directly code for proteins and fulfill all criteria of a genetic material, including replication, expression of Mendelian characters, and mutation.

848 / 913

Category: Exceptions: RNA viruses

848. (A) Retroviruses synthesize DNA from their RNA genome using reverse transcriptase.
(R) Reverse transcription violates the central dogma of molecular biology by enabling RNA to DNA information flow.

849 / 913

Category: DNA as predominant hereditary material

849. (A) The Hershey-Chase experiment conclusively proved that DNA is the genetic material because radioactive phosphorus ($^{32}P$) from the phage DNA was found inside the bacterial cells, while radioactive sulfur ($^{35}S$) remained outside.
(R) DNA is the predominant genetic material due to its ability to replicate with high fidelity and its chemical stability.

850 / 913

Category: Nature of Genetic Material

850. (A) The Hershey-Chase experiment provided direct evidence for DNA being the genetic material by demonstrating that only radioactive phosphorus ($^{32}$P) from bacteriophages entered bacterial cells, not radioactive sulfur ($^{35}$S).
(R) DNA contains phosphorus in its phosphate backbone, whereas proteins contain sulfur in amino acids like cysteine and methionine.

851 / 913

Category: Expression through proteins

851. (A) The lac operon in E. coli is an example of an inducible operon because its expression increases in the presence of lactose.
(R) The repressor protein binds to the operator region in the absence of lactose, inhibiting transcription of the lac operon.

852 / 913

Category: Alleles & multiple allelism

852. (A) A new allele can arise only through mutation in the DNA sequence of a gene.

(R) Mutations introduce genetic variation by altering the nucleotide sequence, leading to the formation of new alleles.

853 / 913

Category: Fixed position on chromosome

853. (A) Histone $H_1$ acts as a linker histone and is essential for the formation of the 30 nm chromatin fiber.
(R) Histone $H_1$ binds to the DNA at the entry and exit points of the nucleosome core particle.

854 / 913

Category: Information storage

854. (A) DNA is more stable than RNA as genetic material because it lacks the $2' - OH$ group, making it less prone to hydrolysis.
(R) The absence of the $2' - OH$ group in DNA reduces its mutability compared to RNA.

855 / 913

Category: Mutability

855. (A) Frame-shift mutations resulting from single base deletions are more likely to cause severe phenotypic effects compared to point mutations because they disrupt the reading frame of codons downstream from the mutation site.
(R) A point mutation involving a synonymous substitution does not alter the amino acid sequence of the encoded protein due to the degeneracy of the genetic code.

856 / 913

Category: Chemical stability

856. (A) DNA is more chemically stable than RNA because it lacks a $2' - OH$ group, reducing its reactivity.
(R) The presence of thymine in DNA instead of uracil contributes to its greater chemical stability by preventing spontaneous mutations.

857 / 913

Category: Ability to replicate

857. (A) During DNA replication, the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously in Okazaki fragments because DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing strand.
(R) The leading strand is synthesized continuously in the 5' to 3' direction, whereas the lagging strand is synthesized in short fragments due to the antiparallel nature of DNA and the limitation of DNA polymerase.

858 / 913

Category: Properties of Genes (Genetic Material)

858. (A) Chemical and structural stability is an essential property of genes to ensure accurate inheritance of genetic information.
(R) Mutations introduce variability, but excessive instability would disrupt the transmission of genetic traits across generations.

859 / 913

Category: Recon – unit of recombination

859. (A) A recon is always larger than a muton because recombination requires a longer DNA segment than mutation.
(R) Mutation can occur due to a single nucleotide change, while recombination involves the exchange of DNA segments between two homologous chromosomes.

860 / 913

Category: Muton – unit of mutation

860. (A) Sickle cell anemia is caused by a single nucleotide substitution in the $\beta$-globin gene, which alters the 6th amino acid from glutamic acid to valine.
(R) A muton is defined as the smallest unit of DNA that can undergo mutation and result in a phenotypic change.

861 / 913

Category: Cistron – unit of function

861. (A) Two mutations in a gene fail to complement each other in the trans configuration, indicating they lie within the same cistron.

(R) The cis-trans test determines whether mutations affect the same functional unit by comparing their effects in different chromosomal arrangements.

862 / 913

Category: Gene Sub-units

862. (A) A muton can be larger than a recon in some cases.
(R) The smallest unit capable of recombination (recon) is always made up of more nucleotides than the smallest unit capable of mutation (muton).

863 / 913

Category: One gene–one polypeptide concept

863. (A) A cistron is the smallest unit of mutation in DNA.
(R) A muton consists of fewer nucleotides than a cistron and can give rise to new forms by mutation.

864 / 913

Category: Functional unit of heredity

864. (A) The one gene-one enzyme hypothesis is universally applicable to all genes.
(R) Every gene encodes for a single polypeptide chain, which may or may not have enzymatic activity.

865 / 913

Category: Mendelian factor

865. (A) The cistron is the smallest unit of mutation in a gene.
(R) A muton is defined as the smallest length of DNA capable of undergoing mutation and is smaller than a cistron.

866 / 913

Category: Definition & Concept of Gene

866. (A) A single gene can code for multiple polypeptide chains in certain viruses due to overlapping genes.
(R) Overlapping genes allow a single DNA sequence to be read in different reading frames, producing distinct proteins.

867 / 913

Category: Genes

867. (A) A muton is the smallest unit of a gene that can undergo recombination.
(R) Recombination requires the exchange of nucleotide sequences between homologous chromosomes, which can occur at the level of a single nucleotide pair.

868 / 913

Category: Nature of Genes

868. (A) A gene can undergo mutation, which introduces variability in the genetic material.
(R) Mutation is the smallest length of DNA capable of giving rise to a new form by altering the nucleotide sequence.

869 / 913

Category: Function of Genes

869. (A) A gene must be able to undergo mutations to produce new alleles for it to qualify as a gene.
(R) Mutations in genes lead to genetic diversity, which is essential for evolution and adaptation.

870 / 913

Category: Evidence from TMV experiments

870. (A) In the Fraenkel-Conrat and Singer experiment, the progeny viruses always resembled the RNA donor strain.
(R) RNA can act as genetic material because it is chemically stable and can replicate.

871 / 913

Category: Exceptions: RNA viruses

871. (A) RNA can function as both genetic material and catalyst in viruses like TMV.
(R) RNA has catalytic properties (ribozymes) and can directly code for protein synthesis, making it suitable as genetic material in certain viruses.

872 / 913

Category: DNA as predominant hereditary material

872. (A) The Hershey-Chase experiment proved that DNA is the genetic material of T$_2$ bacteriophage.
(R) In the experiment, only $^{32}$P-labeled DNA entered the bacterial cells while $^{35}$S-labeled protein remained outside.

873 / 913

Category: Nature of Genetic Material

873. (A) DNA is the genetic material in all living organisms.
(R) RNA can also function as genetic material in certain viruses like TMV.

874 / 913

Category: Expression through proteins

874. (A) The presence of lactose induces the production of $\beta$-galactosidase in $E. coli$.
(R) Lactose acts as an inducer that binds to the repressor and prevents it from blocking the transcription of genes involved in lactose metabolism.

875 / 913

Category: Alleles & multiple allelism

875. (A) In the ABO blood group system, an individual with genotype $I^A I^B$ expresses both A and B antigens on red blood cells.
(R) The alleles $I^A$ and $I^B$ are codominant and equally expressed in heterozygous condition.

876 / 913

Category: Fixed position on chromosome

876. (A) The nucleosome core particle consists of DNA wrapped around a histone octamer.
(R) Histones are positively charged proteins that facilitate the binding of negatively charged DNA.

877 / 913

Category: Information storage

877. (A) DNA is more stable than RNA for long-term storage of genetic information.
(R) DNA lacks the $2'—OH$ group, which makes it chemically less reactive compared to RNA.

878 / 913

Category: Mutability

878. (A) A single base substitution mutation in the $\beta$-chain of hemoglobin can lead to sickle cell anemia.
(R) The mutation changes the codon for glutamic acid to valine, altering the protein structure.

879 / 913

Category: Chemical stability

879. (A) DNA is more chemically stable than RNA due to the absence of a 2'--OH group in its sugar moiety.
(R) The 2'--OH group in RNA makes it susceptible to hydrolysis, leading to chemical instability.

880 / 913

Category: Ability to replicate

880. (A) During DNA replication, the leading strand is synthesized continuously while the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously in Okazaki fragments.
(R) DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides in the $5'$ to $3'$ direction.

881 / 913

Category: Properties of Genes (Genetic Material)

881. (A) A mutant allele may show a different phenotypic effect compared to the wild-type allele due to mutation.
(R) Mutations introduce changes in the DNA sequence, which can alter the function or expression of the gene product.

882 / 913

Category: Recon – unit of recombination

882. (A) The recon is the smallest unit of recombination in genetics.
(R) A recon represents the shortest distance between two mutons that allows recombination to occur.

883 / 913

Category: Muton – unit of mutation

883. (A) A muton is the smallest unit of DNA that can undergo mutation.
(R) A muton consists of fewer nucleotides than a cistron, allowing for precise point mutations.

884 / 913

Category: Cistron – unit of function

884. (A) A cistron is the smallest unit of mutation in DNA.
(R) A muton is defined as the smallest segment of DNA that can undergo mutation, which may be smaller than a cistron.

885 / 913

Category: Gene Sub-units

885. (A) A recon is the smallest unit that can undergo recombination.
(R) A recon consists of fewer nucleotides than a muton and cistron.

886 / 913

Category: One gene–one polypeptide concept

886. (A) The concept of one gene–one polypeptide states that a single gene codes for only one polypeptide chain.
(R) This is because genes in eukaryotes may contain non-coding sequences like introns and exons, which are later spliced out to form the final mRNA.

887 / 913

Category: Functional unit of heredity

887. (A) A gene must be capable of undergoing mutations to be considered as a functional unit of heredity.

(R) Mutations introduce genetic variation, which is essential for evolution and adaptation.

888 / 913

Category: Mendelian factor

888. (A) A gene can code for only one polypeptide chain.
(R) According to the one gene-one polypeptide hypothesis, each gene controls the production of a single polypeptide.

889 / 913

Category: Definition & Concept of Gene

889. (A) A single gene codes for only one polypeptide chain in an enzyme molecule.
(R) The one gene-one polypeptide hypothesis was proposed after it was observed that some enzymes consist of multiple polypeptide chains.

890 / 913

Category: Genes

890. (A) A cistron is the smallest unit of DNA that can undergo mutation.
(R) A muton is a segment of DNA capable of giving rise to a new form by mutation and is smaller than a cistron.

891 / 913

Category: Nature of Genes

891. (A) A gene is the smallest unit that can undergo mutation or recombination.
(R) Seymour Benzer defined genes as units of function (cistron), mutation (muton), and recombination (recon).

892 / 913

Category: Function of Genes

892. (A) Genes express themselves by producing proteins that control cell metabolism.
(R) Enzymes, which are proteins, regulate metabolic pathways in the cell.

893 / 913

Category: Evidence from TMV experiments

893. (A) The progeny viruses in Fraenkel-Conrat and Singer's TMV experiments always matched the RNA type, not the protein type.
(R) RNA carries genetic information in TMV because it can replicate and express itself.

894 / 913

Category: Exceptions: RNA viruses

894. (A) RNA acts as the genetic material in Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV).
(R) TMV does not contain DNA, and experiments by Fraenkel-Conrat and Singer demonstrated that progeny viruses inherit RNA, not protein.

895 / 913

Category: DNA as predominant hereditary material

895. (A) DNA is the genetic material in T2 bacteriophage.
(R) Only $^{32}P$ (DNA) entered bacterial cells during the Hershey-Chase experiment, while $^{35}S$ (protein coat) remained outside.

896 / 913

Category: Nature of Genetic Material

896. (A) DNA is the genetic material in most organisms.
(R) DNA is more stable and less reactive than RNA, making it suitable for long-term storage of genetic information.

897 / 913

Category: Expression through proteins

897. (A) In the $lac$ operon of $E. coli$, the presence of lactose induces the production of $\beta$-galactosidase.
(R) Lactose acts as an inducer by binding to the repressor protein, preventing it from attaching to the operator region.

898 / 913

Category: Alleles & multiple allelism

898. (A) The ABO blood group system in humans is an example of multiple allelism because it involves three alleles ($I^A$, $I^B$, $i$).
(R) Multiple allelism occurs when a gene has more than two allelic forms, increasing genetic diversity.

899 / 913

Category: Fixed position on chromosome

899. (A) Genes are located at fixed positions on chromosomes.
(R) Each chromosome contains DNA molecules that are a double helix.

900 / 913

Category: Information storage

900. (A) DNA is the primary genetic material in most organisms.
(R) DNA is chemically stable and can replicate accurately.

901 / 913

Category: Mutability

901. (A) A single base change in DNA can lead to a different amino acid in the protein.
(R) Mutations alter the reading frame of codons during translation.

902 / 913

Category: Chemical stability

902. (A) DNA is chemically more stable than RNA due to the absence of a $2'$–OH group in its sugar.
(R) The presence of a $2'$–OH group in RNA makes it highly reactive and prone to hydrolysis.

903 / 913

Category: Ability to replicate

903. (A) DNA replication is semi-conservative because each daughter DNA molecule contains one parental strand and one newly synthesized strand.
(R) Meselson and Stahl's experiment proved that DNA replication follows a semi-conservative mechanism.

904 / 913

Category: Properties of Genes (Genetic Material)

904. (A) Genes are made up of DNA.
(R) DNA is the genetic material that carries hereditary information.

905 / 913

Category: Recon – unit of recombination

905. (A) The recon is the smallest unit of DNA capable of recombination.
(R) The recon may sometimes be of the same size as the muton.

906 / 913

Category: Muton – unit of mutation

906. (A) A muton is the smallest unit of DNA capable of mutation.
(R) A muton consists of a single nucleotide.

907 / 913

Category: Cistron – unit of function

907. (A) A cistron is the smallest functional unit of DNA that codes for a polypeptide chain.
(R) This is because mutations within a cistron can affect the function of the encoded polypeptide.

908 / 913

Category: Gene Sub-units

908. (A) A cistron is the smallest unit of mutation.
(R) A muton is the smallest length of DNA capable of giving rise to a new form by mutation.

909 / 913

Category: One gene–one polypeptide concept

909. (A) The one gene–one polypeptide hypothesis states that a single gene codes for only one polypeptide chain.
(R) The one gene–one enzyme hypothesis was refined because enzymes can be composed of multiple polypeptide chains.

910 / 913

Category: Functional unit of heredity

910. (A) A gene is the smallest unit that can undergo a mutational change.
(R) A muton is the smallest length of DNA capable of giving rise to a new form by mutation.

911 / 913

Category: Mendelian factor

911. (A) A gene is the smallest unit that can undergo a mutational change.

(R) According to Seymour Benzer, a muton is the smallest length of DNA capable of giving rise to a new form by mutation.

912 / 913

Category: Genes

912. (A) A gene is the smallest unit that can undergo a mutational change or recombination.
(R) A gene is considered as a unit of function (cistron), a unit of mutation (muton), and a unit of recombination (recon).

913 / 913

Category: Definition & Concept of Gene

913. (A) Genes are the fundamental units of heredity.
(R) Genes control traits by directing protein synthesis and can undergo mutations.

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