Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Reproductive Health

This quiz on ICSE Class 12 Biology – Chapter 3: Reproductive Health is designed to help students deepen their understanding of the importance of maintaining reproductive well-being at individual and societal levels. It assesses knowledge of key concepts such as reproductive health care, birth control methods, sexually transmitted diseases, infertility and its treatment, family planning, and population control measures. The quiz encourages learners to think critically about responsible reproductive behavior and the role of awareness, education, and medical support in ensuring a healthy society. By participating in this quiz, students will not only recall essential theoretical concepts but also relate them to real-life applications and social implications.

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Category: ACQUIRED IMMUNO DEFICIENCY SYNDROME (AIDS)

1. A healthcare worker accidentally gets pricked by a needle used on an HIV-positive patient. The worker immediately starts post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP). Which of the following drugs is most likely included in PEP to inhibit viral replication?

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Category: ACQUIRED IMMUNO DEFICIENCY SYNDROME (AIDS)

2. A patient presents with persistent fever, weight loss, and oral thrush. The patient reports having multiple sexual partners and sharing needles for intravenous drug use. Which of the following conditions is most likely to develop if this patient's condition progresses untreated?

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Category: HEPATITIS-B

3. A healthcare worker accidentally gets splashed with infected blood in the eye during a surgical procedure. Which immediate and long-term measures should be taken to prevent complications like chronic infection and potential liver damage?

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Category: HEPATITIS-B

4. A patient presents with flu-like symptoms, nausea, and dark urine after 6 weeks of hospital treatment involving frequent injections. The patient later develops jaundice. Which diagnostic test would most likely confirm the presence of a viral infection that could lead to long-term complications such as cirrhosis or liver cancer?

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Category: TRICHOMONIASIS

5. A patient diagnosed with trichomoniasis is prescribed metronidazole. What additional measure is essential for effective management?

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Category: TRICHOMONIASIS

6. Which of the following statements about trichomoniasis is FALSE based on its transmission and symptoms?

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Category: GENITAL WARTS

7. A 25-year-old HIV-positive male with a recent CD4 count of 200 cells/mm³ develops extensive genital warts within two weeks after sexual contact with an infected partner. Which factor best explains the unusually rapid appearance and severity of his condition compared to the typical presentation?

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Category: GENITAL WARTS

8. A patient presents with multiple flesh-colored, cauliflower-like growths in the genital area that developed over the past 3 months. The lesions are painless but itchy. Which of the following would be the LEAST appropriate management approach for this condition?

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Category: CHLAMYDIASIS

9. Which of the following methods is NOT an effective strategy for preventing chlamydia infection?

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Category: CHLAMYDIASIS

10. A 20-year-old female patient presents with lower abdominal discomfort, abnormal vaginal discharge, and a burning sensation while urinating. She recently had unprotected intercourse with a new partner. Given these symptoms, which of the following is the most likely mode of transmission if she has chlamydia?

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Category: SYPHILIS

11. Which of the following measures is LEAST effective in preventing the transmission of syphilis?

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Category: SYPHILIS

12. A patient presents with painless ulcers on the glans penis and a skin rash that does not itch but appears all over the body. The patient reports having had similar ulcers 6 months ago that healed without treatment. Which stage of syphilis is the patient currently in?

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Category: GONORRHOEA

13. A patient presents with painless genital ulcer that healed spontaneously after 3 weeks. Six months later, they develop non-itchy rash on palms and soles with generalized lymphadenopathy. Which stage of syphilis is this clinical presentation most consistent with?

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Category: GONORRHOEA

14. A patient presents with symptoms of gonorrhoea including yellowish discharge and dysuria. The physician decides to treat with PPF 2.4 mu plus probenecid. What is the primary reason for administering probenecid in this treatment regimen?

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Category: SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASES (STDs)

15. A patient presents with painless, clean-based ulcers on the glans penis that healed within 3 weeks without treatment. Six months later, a non-itchy skin rash appears all over the body. Which stage of syphilis is the patient currently experiencing?

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Category: SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASES (STDs)

16. A patient diagnosed with gonorrhoea is resistant to the standard treatment of $PPF 2.4 \mu$ with probenecid. Which of the following antibiotics would be most appropriate for treating this resistant strain?

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Category: ACQUIRED IMMUNO DEFICIENCY SYNDROME (AIDS)

17. What is the primary function of AZT ($azidothymidine$) in the treatment of AIDS?

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Category: ACQUIRED IMMUNO DEFICIENCY SYNDROME (AIDS)

18. Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission for AIDS?

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Category: HEPATITIS-B

19. What is the most effective way to prevent Hepatitis B infection?

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Category: HEPATITIS-B

20. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Hepatitis B?

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Category: TRICHOMONIASIS

21. Which of the following is a common symptom of trichomoniasis in women?

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Category: TRICHOMONIASIS

22. What is the causative organism of trichomoniasis?

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Category: GENITAL WARTS

23. What is an effective method to prevent genital warts as per the syllabus?

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Category: GENITAL WARTS

24. Which HPV types are responsible for the majority of genital warts cases?

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Category: CHLAMYDIASIS

25. Which of the following is an effective method for preventing chlamydia transmission?

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Category: CHLAMYDIASIS

26. What is the primary causative agent of chlamydia?

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Category: SYPHILIS

27. What is one of the primary methods to prevent the spread of syphilis?

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Category: SYPHILIS

28. Which stage of syphilis is characterized by the appearance of a painless, clean-based ulcer at the site of infection?

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Category: GONORRHOEA

29. What is a common characteristic symptom of gonorrhoea in females?

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Category: GONORRHOEA

30. Which bacterium is responsible for causing gonorrhoea?

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Category: SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASES (STDs)

31. Which virus is most commonly responsible for genital herpes?

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Category: SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASES (STDs)

32. What is the primary symptom of gonorrhoea in males?

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Category: ACQUIRED IMMUNO DEFICIENCY SYNDROME (AIDS)

33. Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission for AIDS?

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Category: ACQUIRED IMMUNO DEFICIENCY SYNDROME (AIDS)

34. What virus causes AIDS?

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Category: HEPATITIS-B

35. What is the most effective method for preventing Hepatitis-B?

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Category: HEPATITIS-B

36. Which of the following is a symptom of Hepatitis-B?

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Category: TRICHOMONIASIS

37. Which of the following symptoms is most likely to be experienced by women infected with trichomoniasis?

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Category: TRICHOMONIASIS

38. What is the causative agent of trichomoniasis?

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Category: GENITAL WARTS

39. What can help protect against the two HPV types that cause 90% of all cases of genital warts?

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Category: GENITAL WARTS

40. Which types of HPV are responsible for most cases of genital warts?

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Category: CHLAMYDIASIS

41. Which of the following is a common symptom of chlamydiasis in females?

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Category: CHLAMYDIASIS

42. What is the primary mode of transmission for chlamydiasis?

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Category: SYPHILIS

43. Which of the following is a symptom of the first stage of syphilis?

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Category: SYPHILIS

44. What is the causative agent of syphilis?

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Category: GONORRHOEA

45. What is a common symptom of Gonorrhoea in males?

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Category: GONORRHOEA

46. Which bacterium causes Gonorrhoea?

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Category: SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASES (STDs)

47. What is the primary symptom of the first stage of syphilis?

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Category: SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASES (STDs)

48. Which bacterium causes gonorrhoea?

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Category: GENETIC COUNSELLING

49. A 38-year-old pregnant woman undergoes amniocentesis as part of her genetic counselling. The test reveals a chromosomal abnormality in the fetus. What is the most appropriate next step for the genetic counsellor?

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Category: GENETIC COUNSELLING

50. A couple who are first cousins seek genetic counselling as they are planning to have a child. They are concerned about the risk of autosomal recessive disorders. Which of the following best describes the primary ethical consideration a counsellor must address in this scenario?

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Category: GENETIC COUNSELLING

51. Amniocentesis is most commonly used to detect which of the following in prenatal diagnosis?

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Category: GENETIC COUNSELLING

52. For which of the following scenarios is genetic counselling NOT typically recommended?

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Category: GENETIC COUNSELLING

53. Which of the following is a common use of amniocentesis in genetic counselling?

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Category: GENETIC COUNSELLING

54. What is the primary purpose of genetic counselling?

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Category: AMNIOCENTESIS

55. A couple undergoing amniocentesis learns their fetus has Turner syndrome (45,X). They ask about the reliability of these results and potential ethical concerns. Which statement accurately addresses their concerns?

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Category: AMNIOCENTESIS

56. A 38-year-old pregnant woman with history of a previous child with Down syndrome is considering amniocentesis. She wants to understand the optimal timing and primary diagnostic capabilities of the procedure. What should be explained to her?

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Category: AMNIOCENTESIS

57. Amniocentesis can help diagnose which of the following conditions?

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Category: AMNIOCENTESIS

58. Which of the following is NOT a common indication for performing amniocentesis?

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Category: AMNIOCENTESIS

59. Which of the following is NOT a common indication for performing amniocentesis?

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Category: AMNIOCENTESIS

60. Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic technique primarily used to detect:

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Category: TEST-TUBE BABIES

61. In a case where the male partner has extremely low sperm count, which assisted reproductive technology would be most effective, and what genetic relationship does the baby have with the surrogate mother?

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Category: TEST-TUBE BABIES

62. A couple undergoing IVF has their embryo frozen at $-200^\circ C$ for later implantation. Which stage of the embryo is most suitable for freezing to ensure successful pregnancy upon thawing?

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Category: TEST-TUBE BABIES

63. What is a key genetic difference between surrogate motherhood and womb leasing?

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Category: TEST-TUBE BABIES

64. During in vitro fertilization (IVF), at which stage of development is the fertilized egg typically transferred back into the mother’s womb?

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Category: TEST-TUBE BABIES

65. In surrogate motherhood, whose genetic material is present in the baby?

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Category: TEST-TUBE BABIES

66. What is the correct sequence of steps involved in in vitro fertilization (IVF)?

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Category: Womb leasing,

67. Which of the following scenarios represents a potential ethical or legal challenge specific to womb leasing?

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Category: Womb leasing,

68. A couple opts for womb leasing where the embryo is formed using the biological mother's egg and father's sperm and implanted in a surrogate’s uterus. What is the genetic relationship of the baby born through this procedure?

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Category: Surrogate motherhood.

69. Which scenario represents a potential ethical challenge in surrogate motherhood as per the syllabus?

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Category: Surrogate motherhood.

70. In traditional surrogate motherhood where the sperm of an infertile woman's husband is used, what is the genetic relationship between the baby and the infertile woman?

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Category: ICSI (Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection).

71. Which of the following scenarios would most likely warrant the use of ICSI over conventional IVF?

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Category: ICSI (Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection).

72. In ICSI, the selection of sperm for injection into the ovum is based on which of the following criteria?

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Category: LUT (Intra uterine transfer).

73. In the context of assisted reproductive technologies (ART), why is intrauterine transfer (IUT) preferred over other methods for certain cases of female infertility?

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Category: LUT (Intra uterine transfer).

74. A woman is undergoing intrauterine transfer (IUT) with embryos formed by in vivo fertilization. The embryos are at the 10-blastomere stage. Why is this stage specifically chosen for IUT instead of earlier stages like the 2-cell or 4-cell stage?

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Category: Immunosuppressive therapy

75. In which scenario would immunosuppressive therapy most likely be considered as a treatment option for infertility?

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Category: Immunosuppressive therapy

76. A couple undergoing immunosuppressive therapy for immune-mediated infertility is experiencing recurrent infections. Which of the following best explains this side effect?

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Category: ZIFT (Zygote intrafallopian transfer).

77. Which of the following is a key advantage of ZIFT over Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer (GIFT) in assisted reproductive technology?

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Category: ZIFT (Zygote intrafallopian transfer).

78. A couple is considering Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer (ZIFT) as a treatment for their infertility. The woman has one functional fallopian tube, but the man has poor sperm motility. Which of the following statements correctly explains why ZIFT would be suitable for them compared to other ART methods?

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Category: Surgery

79. A 35-year-old male undergoes vasectomy while his wife considers tubal ligation. Which statement accurately compares the physiological consequences between these procedures when performed correctly?

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Category: Surgery

80. A couple who already have two children visits a fertility clinic seeking permanent contraception options. The husband is concerned about potential hormonal side effects while the wife prefers minimal recovery time. During counseling, they learn that under Indian law, MTP can be performed up to how many weeks if continuation poses risk to the mother's health?

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Category: GIFT (Gamete intrafallopian transfer).

81. For which of the following infertility scenarios would GIFT likely NOT be a suitable treatment option?

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Category: GIFT (Gamete intrafallopian transfer).

82. A couple with one healthy fallopian tube is considering GIFT as a fertility treatment option. Which of the following best describes where fertilization occurs in GIFT compared to natural conception?

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Category: Hormonal therapy

83. A woman has undergone hormonal therapy successfully but is unable to carry a pregnancy due to uterine abnormalities. Which of the following would be the most suitable option for her to have a biological child?

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Category: Hormonal therapy

84. A couple is diagnosed with infertility due to the female partner's inability to produce mature eggs and the male partner's low sperm count. Which of the following assisted reproductive techniques would be most appropriate for them?

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Category: In vitro fertilization (IVF).

85. A couple presents with infertility due to bilateral blocked fallopian tubes but normal sperm production and ovulation. Why would IVF be more beneficial than other assisted reproductive techniques in this case?

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Category: In vitro fertilization (IVF).

86. Which of the following statements correctly describes an advanced IVF technique where embryos can be preserved for future use?

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Category: Remedies

87. A woman has blocked fallopian tubes, preventing natural fertilization. Which assisted reproductive technology would be most suitable for this couple if they wish to have fertilization occur inside her body?

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Category: Remedies

88. A couple is diagnosed with infertility due to poor sperm production in the male partner. The doctor recommends testosterone injections to stimulate sperm production. What is the primary reason testosterone is effective in this scenario?

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Category: Artificial insemination.

89. In preparing semen for artificial insemination, why is sperm washing an essential step before IUI?

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Category: Artificial insemination.

90. A couple is considering artificial insemination (AI) but has concerns about the success rate of intra-uterine insemination (IUI). Which factor would MOST likely increase the success rate of IUI in this scenario?

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Category: Medical history, semen analysis, imaging

91. A woman with blocked fallopian tubes wishes to conceive. Her husband has normal sperm parameters. Which of the following procedures would allow fertilization to occur naturally inside her body?

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Category: Medical history, semen analysis, imaging

92. A couple has been trying to conceive for two years without success. The man's semen analysis shows a low sperm count and reduced motility. Which of the following assisted reproductive techniques would be most suitable if the woman has no fertility issues?

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Category: Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART)

93. A woman can produce viable eggs but cannot carry a pregnancy to term. Which ART method ensures that the baby will genetically belong only to her and her husband, without any genetic contribution from the surrogate?

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Category: Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART)

94. In the context of Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART), which of the following procedures involves transferring unfertilized eggs and sperm directly into the fallopian tube for natural fertilization to occur?

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Category: Diagnosis

95. In an IVF procedure, after successful fertilization, the embryo is frozen at $-200^\circ C$. What is the primary advantage of embryo freezing in assisted reproductive technology?

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Category: Diagnosis

96. A 38-year-old pregnant woman is advised amniocentesis due to her age. Her ultrasound shows a viable single fetus with normal anatomy. The procedure is performed at 14 weeks of gestation. What is the primary purpose of performing amniocentesis in this case?

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Category: Finding a Remedy

97. A woman has blocked fallopian tubes but normal egg production, while her husband has normal sperm production. Which assisted reproductive technology would most likely be recommended for them, and why?

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Category: Finding a Remedy

98. A couple is undergoing treatment for infertility due to the female partner's hostile response to sperm. The doctor suggests artificial insemination (AI). Which of the following statements best explains why AI might be beneficial in this case?

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Category: Hostile uterus/cervical mucus

99. A 32-year-old female undergoes post-coital testing, which confirms hostile cervical mucus as the cause of infertility. Which treatment option would be most appropriate to bypass this issue?

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Category: Hostile uterus/cervical mucus

100. A couple presents with infertility issues. Examination reveals the presence of antisperm antibodies in the female partner's cervical mucus. Which mechanism explains how these antibodies contribute to infertility?

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Category: Finding the Cause

101. A couple has been trying to conceive for 2 years. The woman's menstrual cycles are regular, and the man has normal sperm parameters. However, post-coital testing shows no viable sperm in the cervical mucus. What is the most probable explanation?

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Category: Finding the Cause

102. A 32-year-old male with a history of mumps infection after puberty presents with infertility. Semen analysis reveals low sperm count and reduced motility. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause?

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Category: Blockage in ducts

103. A 28-year-old woman with a history of pelvic inflammatory disease presents with infertility. Hysterosalpingography reveals bilateral fallopian tube blockage. She had an episode of severe lower abdominal pain last year that was managed conservatively. What is the most probable explanation for her current condition?

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Category: Blockage in ducts

104. A 32-year-old male with a history of recurrent genital infections presents with infertility. Semen analysis reveals no spermatozoa. Further examination shows normal testosterone levels but absence of sperm in the ejaculate. Which condition is most likely responsible for his infertility?

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Category: Poor ovulation / ovarian defects

105. A 35-year-old woman diagnosed with premature ovarian insufficiency is considering fertility treatments. Her ovarian reserve is severely diminished. Which treatment option would be most effective for her condition?

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Category: Poor ovulation / ovarian defects

106. A 32-year-old woman presents with irregular menstrual cycles and inability to conceive for 3 years. Laboratory tests reveal low levels of FSH and LH. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of her infertility?

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Category: Poor sperm production / motility

107. In a case of complete absence of sperm in semen ($azoospermia$), which assisted reproductive technology would be most appropriate if surgical correction is unsuccessful?

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Category: Poor sperm production / motility

108. A patient presents with undescended testes and a history of wearing tight undergarments frequently. Which condition is most likely responsible for his reported low sperm count?

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Category: Causes

109. A couple has been trying to conceive for two years without success. The female partner has irregular menstrual cycles and an ultrasound reveals patches of endometrial tissue outside the uterus. What is the most probable underlying cause of her infertility?

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Category: Causes

110. A 30-year-old male presents with infertility issues. Semen analysis reveals a low sperm count and reduced motility. He has been wearing tight undergarments for prolonged periods. Which of the following is the most likely contributing factor to his condition?

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Category: Infertility

111. A patient presents with azoospermia (absence of sperm in semen). Which of the following conditions would most likely be associated with this diagnosis?

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Category: Infertility

112. A couple facing infertility due to blocked fallopian tubes is considering in vitro fertilization (IVF). Which of the following statements best describes the critical step in IVF that ensures successful fertilization?

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Category: Womb leasing,

113. What is a significant ethical concern associated with womb leasing?

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Category: Womb leasing,

114. In womb leasing, which of the following individuals is genetically related to the baby?

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Category: Surrogate motherhood.

115. What is one major ethical concern associated with surrogate motherhood as mentioned in the syllabus?

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Category: Surrogate motherhood.

116. In the case of surrogate motherhood where sperms from the husband of an infertile woman are introduced into the womb of a surrogate mother, what is the genetic relationship of the baby to the surrogate mother?

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Category: ICSI (Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection).

117. Which of the following conditions is NOT a primary indication for using ICSI?

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Category: ICSI (Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection).

118. In the ICSI procedure, why is it necessary to immobilize the sperm before injection into the ovum?

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Category: LUT (Intra uterine transfer).

119. Which of the following conditions might make a woman a suitable candidate for intra uterine transfer (IUT)?

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Category: LUT (Intra uterine transfer).

120. What is the minimum number of blastomeres required in an embryo for it to be considered suitable for intra uterine transfer (IUT)?

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Category: Immunosuppressive therapy

121. A patient undergoing immunosuppressive therapy for infertility should be closely monitored for which potential risk?

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Category: Immunosuppressive therapy

122. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of immunosuppressive therapy in treating infertility caused by antisperm antibodies?

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Category: ZIFT (Zygote intrafallopian transfer).

123. For which of the following infertility conditions would ZIFT be most suitable?

124 / 1125

Category: ZIFT (Zygote intrafallopian transfer).

124. What is the main difference between Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer (ZIFT) and Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer (GIFT)?

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Category: Surgery

125. According to the MTP (Amendment) Act, 2017, up to how many weeks can pregnancy be terminated with the opinion of two registered medical practitioners?

126 / 1125

Category: GIFT (Gamete intrafallopian transfer).

126. Which of the following is a strict requirement for a couple to be eligible for GIFT?

127 / 1125

Category: GIFT (Gamete intrafallopian transfer).

127. In the GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer) procedure, where does fertilization of the egg occur?

128 / 1125

Category: Hormonal therapy

128. A couple undergoing fertility treatment has been advised to consider IVF along with hormonal therapy. What is the primary role of hormonal therapy in this scenario?

129 / 1125

Category: Hormonal therapy

129. A patient is diagnosed with hormonal imbalance leading to irregular menstrual cycles. Which of the following treatments would most likely be prescribed to regulate her cycle and induce ovulation?

130 / 1125

Category: In vitro fertilization (IVF).

130. At which stage of development is the fertilized egg typically transferred back into the mother's uterus during IVF?

131 / 1125

Category: In vitro fertilization (IVF).

131. Which of the following steps is performed first in the IVF process?

132 / 1125

Category: Remedies

132. What is the approximate success rate of surgical intervention for removing obstructions between sperm and egg in women?

133 / 1125

Category: Remedies

133. Which treatment is commonly used to stimulate sperm production in men with low sperm count?

134 / 1125

Category: Artificial insemination.

134. Why is intra-uterine insemination (IUI) preferred over vaginal insemination in certain cases?

135 / 1125

Category: Artificial insemination.

135. What is the primary difference between homologous and heterologous artificial insemination?

136 / 1125

Category: Medical history, semen analysis, imaging

136. A couple presents with infertility due to a blockage in the woman's fallopian tube. What is the approximate success rate of surgical correction for this condition?

137 / 1125

Category: Medical history, semen analysis, imaging

137. A 30-year-old male is diagnosed with poor sperm production due to elevated testicular temperature. Which intervention is most likely to improve his sperm count?

138 / 1125

Category: Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART)

138. What is a key characteristic of surrogate motherhood in Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART)?

139 / 1125

Category: Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART)

139. Which of the following scenarios is most suitable for In Vitro Fertilization (IVF)?

140 / 1125

Category: Diagnosis

140. What chromosomal abnormality can be detected using amniocentesis?

141 / 1125

Category: Diagnosis

141. Which of the following is NOT an indication for performing amniocentesis during pregnancy?

142 / 1125

Category: Finding a Remedy

142. A man with poor sperm production might be treated with which hormone to stimulate spermatogenesis?

143 / 1125

Category: Finding a Remedy

143. Which of the following infertility treatments involves injecting a single sperm directly into an ovum in a laboratory setting?

144 / 1125

Category: Hostile uterus/cervical mucus

144. What is the primary purpose of a post-coital test in diagnosing hostile cervical mucus?

145 / 1125

Category: Hostile uterus/cervical mucus

145. Which of the following is a common cause of hostile cervical mucus leading to infertility?

146 / 1125

Category: Finding the Cause

146. What could be a possible reason for sperm failing to penetrate the cervical mucus in a woman's reproductive tract?

147 / 1125

Category: Finding the Cause

147. A man is diagnosed with a condition where his semen contains very few sperm cells. What is this condition termed as?

148 / 1125

Category: Blockage in ducts

148. In males, which condition is associated with obstruction leading to infertility?

149 / 1125

Category: Blockage in ducts

149. Which of the following is a common cause of infertility due to blockage in females?

150 / 1125

Category: Poor ovulation / ovarian defects

150. Which condition may lead to premature menopause due to ovarian defects?

151 / 1125

Category: Poor ovulation / ovarian defects

151. What is the primary role of gonadotrophins in the female reproductive system?

152 / 1125

Category: Poor sperm production / motility

152. Which of the following is NOT a cause of poor sperm motility or production?

153 / 1125

Category: Poor sperm production / motility

153. What condition is characterized by the complete absence of sperm in semen?

154 / 1125

Category: Causes

154. Which of the following best describes the immunological cause of infertility where antibodies attack sperm?

155 / 1125

Category: Causes

155. A man is diagnosed with azoospermia. What does this condition indicate about his fertility status?

156 / 1125

Category: Infertility

156. In which assisted reproductive technology is a single sperm directly injected into an ovum?

157 / 1125

Category: Infertility

157. A 32-year-old male is diagnosed with infertility due to low sperm motility. Which medical term best describes this condition?

158 / 1125

Category: Womb leasing,

158. What is a major concern associated with womb leasing?

159 / 1125

Category: Womb leasing,

159. In womb leasing, the baby is genetically related to whom?

160 / 1125

Category: Surrogate motherhood.

160. How is womb leasing different from surrogate motherhood?

161 / 1125

Category: Surrogate motherhood.

161. In surrogate motherhood, whose genetic material is present in the baby?

162 / 1125

Category: ICSI (Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection).

162. For which condition is ICSI particularly useful?

163 / 1125

Category: ICSI (Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection).

163. What is the first step in the ICSI procedure?

164 / 1125

Category: LUT (Intra uterine transfer).

164. In the test-tube baby technique, at what stage is the fertilized egg returned to the mother's womb?

165 / 1125

Category: LUT (Intra uterine transfer).

165. What is the stage of the embryo when it is transferred in Intra Uterine Transfer (IUT)?

166 / 1125

Category: Immunosuppressive therapy

166. Which class of drugs is commonly used as an immunosuppressant in immune-mediated infertility?

167 / 1125

Category: Immunosuppressive therapy

167. What is the primary purpose of using immunosuppressive therapy in infertility cases caused by immune responses?

168 / 1125

Category: ZIFT (Zygote intrafallopian transfer).

168. Up to how many blastomeres can an early embryo have when transferred during ZIFT?

169 / 1125

Category: ZIFT (Zygote intrafallopian transfer).

169. In Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer (ZIFT), where does fertilization occur?

170 / 1125

Category: Surgery

170. When is amniocentesis typically recommended during pregnancy?

171 / 1125

Category: Surgery

171. What is the primary purpose of in vitro fertilization (IVF) in treating infertility?

172 / 1125

Category: GIFT (Gamete intrafallopian transfer).

172. Why is GIFT not suitable for couples with completely blocked fallopian tubes?

173 / 1125

Category: GIFT (Gamete intrafallopian transfer).

173. Which of the following steps is part of the Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer (GIFT) procedure?

174 / 1125

Category: Hormonal therapy

174. Which of the following assisted reproductive technologies involves transferring gametes directly into the fallopian tube?

175 / 1125

Category: Hormonal therapy

175. Which hormone in the combined oral contraceptive pill prevents ovulation by stopping the ovaries from releasing eggs?

176 / 1125

Category: In vitro fertilization (IVF).

176. Which step in IVF involves inserting a fine plastic tube through the neck of the womb to return the fertilized egg to the mother's body?

177 / 1125

Category: In vitro fertilization (IVF).

177. What does the term "in vitro fertilization" mean?

178 / 1125

Category: Remedies

178. Which assisted reproductive technology is most suitable when there is a blockage between sperm and egg in the fallopian tubes?

179 / 1125

Category: Remedies

179. What is a possible treatment for poor sperm production in men?

180 / 1125

Category: Artificial insemination.

180. Which form of Artificial Insemination involves placing sperm directly into the uterus?

181 / 1125

Category: Artificial insemination.

181. What is Artificial Insemination (AI)?

182 / 1125

Category: Medical history, semen analysis, imaging

182. How can sperm production be improved if the temperature of the testes is too high?

183 / 1125

Category: Medical history, semen analysis, imaging

183. What is the purpose of checking a woman’s menstrual history in infertility evaluation?

184 / 1125

Category: Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART)

184. Where does fertilization occur in the in vitro fertilization (IVF) technique?

185 / 1125

Category: Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART)

185. What is the process called when semen is artificially introduced into the uterus of a female using a syringe?

186 / 1125

Category: Diagnosis

186. What is the primary diagnostic test for evaluating male infertility?

187 / 1125

Category: Diagnosis

187. Which test is commonly used to evaluate female fertility by assessing ovulation?

188 / 1125

Category: Finding a Remedy

188. In which technique is a single sperm directly injected into an ovum?

189 / 1125

Category: Finding a Remedy

189. What hormone can be injected to stimulate sperm production in men?

190 / 1125

Category: Hostile uterus/cervical mucus

190. Which test is commonly used to diagnose hostile cervical mucus by examining sperm survival and motility after intercourse?

191 / 1125

Category: Hostile uterus/cervical mucus

191. What is the primary reason for infertility due to hostile cervical mucus?

192 / 1125

Category: Finding the Cause

192. What is the approximate success rate of surgery to clear an obstruction between sperm and egg in women?

193 / 1125

Category: Finding the Cause

193. What is one method to improve sperm production in men?

194 / 1125

Category: Blockage in ducts

194. What is a common cause of blockage in the fallopian tubes in females?

195 / 1125

Category: Blockage in ducts

195. Which part of the male reproductive system is responsible for carrying sperm from the testes to the urethra?

196 / 1125

Category: Poor ovulation / ovarian defects

196. Which hormones are primarily responsible for stimulating the maturation and release of eggs from the ovaries?

197 / 1125

Category: Poor ovulation / ovarian defects

197. What is the primary cause of poor egg production in cases where the ovaries contain ova but they fail to ripen and be released?

198 / 1125

Category: Poor sperm production / motility

198. Which of the following is NOT a cause of poor sperm production or motility in males?

199 / 1125

Category: Poor sperm production / motility

199. What is the medical term for a condition where no sperms are produced in semen?

200 / 1125

Category: Causes

200. What could prevent sperm from reaching the egg in the female reproductive tract?

201 / 1125

Category: Causes

201. Which of the following is a cause of poor sperm production in males?

202 / 1125

Category: Infertility

202. In which ART procedure is fertilization carried out outside the woman's body and the embryo later implanted into the uterus?

203 / 1125

Category: Infertility

203. Which of the following conditions refers to the absence of sperm in semen?

204 / 1125

Category: INEQUALITY OF SEXES

204. In a society where mothers are often blamed for giving birth to female children, what biological fact can scientifically refute this misconception?

205 / 1125

Category: INEQUALITY OF SEXES

205. If a couple has four children, what is the probability that all four children will be male, considering only biological factors related to sex determination?

206 / 1125

Category: INEQUALITY OF SEXES

206. What is the probability of a sperm cell carrying an X chromosome fertilizing an ovum, resulting in a female offspring?

207 / 1125

Category: INEQUALITY OF SEXES

207. Which chromosome combination determines the biological sex of a human male?

208 / 1125

Category: INEQUALITY OF SEXES

208. Why is the female considered biologically superior in terms of reproductive contribution?

209 / 1125

Category: INEQUALITY OF SEXES

209. What determines the sex of a child in humans?

210 / 1125

Category: Social inequality awareness

210. In a society where female foeticide is prevalent despite legal bans, which combination of measures would be most effective in reducing this practice long-term?

211 / 1125

Category: Social inequality awareness

211. A couple is concerned about societal pressure regarding the gender of their child. They argue that since male gametes determine the sex, the mother shouldn't be blamed for having a girl child. Which of these biological facts best supports their argument?

212 / 1125

Category: Sex determination ban

212. In humans, which parent's gametes determine the sex of the child based on chromosomal composition, and how can this knowledge be misused?

213 / 1125

Category: Sex determination ban

213. Under what condition is it legally permissible to terminate a pregnancy between 12 and 24 weeks in India as per the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017?

214 / 1125

Category: Sex Ratio & Female Foeticide

214. Under the PCPNDT Act, which of the following actions constitutes a punishable offense related to female foeticide?

215 / 1125

Category: Sex Ratio & Female Foeticide

215. In a region with a skewed sex ratio due to female foeticide, the observed number of females per 1000 males is 850. If the natural biological probability of a male birth is 50%, what was the approximate percentage reduction in female births due to female foeticide?

216 / 1125

Category: Social inequality awareness

216. Which of the following is an effective legal measure to prevent female foeticide?

217 / 1125

Category: Social inequality awareness

217. Which factor primarily determines the sex of a child biologically?

218 / 1125

Category: Sex determination ban

218. According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017, what is required for terminating a pregnancy between 12 and 24 weeks in India?

219 / 1125

Category: Sex determination ban

219. What is the primary reason behind the statutory ban on amniocentesis for sex determination in India?

220 / 1125

Category: Sex Ratio & Female Foeticide

220. Why is amniocentesis misused in certain cases?

221 / 1125

Category: Sex Ratio & Female Foeticide

221. Who biologically determines the sex of the child?

222 / 1125

Category: Social inequality awareness

222. What is the primary reason female foeticide should be discouraged?

223 / 1125

Category: Social inequality awareness

223. Who determines the sex of a child biologically?

224 / 1125

Category: Sex determination ban

224. Why is amniocentesis for sex determination banned in many countries?

225 / 1125

Category: Sex determination ban

225. Which chromosomes determine the sex of a child?

226 / 1125

Category: Sex Ratio & Female Foeticide

226. What does female foeticide refer to?

227 / 1125

Category: Sex Ratio & Female Foeticide

227. Who determines the sex of a child in humans?

228 / 1125

Category: MTP Act (1971 & amendment)

228. Which method of MTP is considered safe only up to 12 weeks of pregnancy due to its dependence on uterine contractions induced by prostaglandins?

229 / 1125

Category: MTP Act (1971 & amendment)

229. A pregnant woman in India is at 14 weeks of gestation and seeks MTP due to substantial risk of severe physical abnormalities in the fetus. How many registered medical practitioners are required to approve this procedure under the MTP (Amendment) Act, 2017?

230 / 1125

Category: Legal Aspect

230. A patient seeks an MTP at 10 weeks of gestation. Which method is both legally approved and clinically suitable for her condition?

231 / 1125

Category: Legal Aspect

231. Under the *Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971*, what is the primary legal requirement for terminating a pregnancy between 12 to 24 weeks?

232 / 1125

Category: Prostaglandins

232. A 30-year-old pregnant woman at 18 weeks is diagnosed with a severe fetal anomaly. Which of the following correctly describes the role of prostaglandins and legal considerations in this scenario?

233 / 1125

Category: Prostaglandins

233. A 24-year-old woman is seeking medical termination of pregnancy at 14 weeks due to contraceptive failure. Which of the following statements regarding prostaglandin use in MTP is correct?

234 / 1125

Category: Vacuum aspiration

234. What is one of the primary post-procedure care instructions following a vacuum aspiration for MTP?

235 / 1125

Category: Vacuum aspiration

235. According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017, under what condition is the opinion of two registered medical practitioners required for MTP?

236 / 1125

Category: Dilatation & curettage (D&C)

236. Under which condition would dilatation & curettage (D&C) NOT be legally permissible as per the MTP Act?

237 / 1125

Category: Dilatation & curettage (D&C)

237. A 22-year-old woman presents at 14 weeks gestation with severe cardiac disease that makes continuation of pregnancy life-threatening. Two registered medical practitioners concur about the risk. Which method would be LEAST appropriate for termination?

238 / 1125

Category: Rape cases

238. Which method of MTP involves the intravaginal administration of prostaglandins like $PGE_2$ or $PGF_{2\alpha}$ to induce uterine contractions?

239 / 1125

Category: Rape cases

239. A 17-year-old rape victim is found to be 15 weeks pregnant. She wishes to terminate the pregnancy due to psychological trauma. Under which condition can MTP be legally performed in this case?

240 / 1125

Category: Health risk to mother or fetus

240. In which of these scenarios would MTP be considered both medically necessary AND legally permissible in most countries with abortion laws?

241 / 1125

Category: Health risk to mother or fetus

241. A 24-year-old woman at 10 weeks gestation seeks MTP due to contraceptive failure. She has a history of chronic hypertension. Which method would be safest and most appropriate for her condition?

242 / 1125

Category: Contraceptive failure

242. A patient at 8 weeks of pregnancy opts for MTP. Which method would most likely be recommended as the safest and effective procedure for her first-trimester termination?

243 / 1125

Category: Contraceptive failure

243. A 24-year-old woman visits a gynecologist after her contraceptive method failed. She is currently at 10 weeks of pregnancy and is concerned about her mental health due to the unplanned pregnancy. Under which condition can MTP be legally performed in this scenario?

244 / 1125

Category: Indications

244. A woman seeks MTP after 8 weeks of pregnancy due to financial constraints. Which of the following statements regarding her eligibility for MTP under the MTP Act is correct?

245 / 1125

Category: Indications

245. Under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017, which of the following conditions must be met for terminating a pregnancy between 12 and 24 weeks?

246 / 1125

Category: Terminating pregnancy before full term

246. A clinic offers sex-selective abortions after 16 weeks using prostaglandins. Which combination of violations does this scenario represent according to Indian medical ethics and laws?

247 / 1125

Category: Terminating pregnancy before full term

247. A pregnant woman at 10 weeks gestation with a diagnosed congenital malformation in the fetus seeks MTP. Considering both effectiveness and safety, which method would be most appropriate while ensuring compliance with Indian law?

248 / 1125

Category: Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)

248. Which method of MTP is considered safest and most effective for terminating a first-trimester pregnancy?

249 / 1125

Category: Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)

249. Under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 in India, what is the maximum gestational age up to which MTP can be performed with the opinion of two registered medical practitioners?

250 / 1125

Category: MTP Act (1971 & amendment)

250. Which of the following conditions does NOT qualify as a valid ground for Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) under the MTP Act, 1971?

251 / 1125

Category: MTP Act (1971 & amendment)

251. Under the MTP (Amendment) Act, 2017, within how many weeks of pregnancy can a termination be performed with the opinion of only one registered medical practitioner?

252 / 1125

Category: Legal Aspect

252. Under which condition is MTP permitted beyond 20 weeks of pregnancy as per the MTP Act?

253 / 1125

Category: Legal Aspect

253. According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, up to how many weeks of pregnancy can an MTP be performed on the opinion of a single registered medical practitioner?

254 / 1125

Category: Prostaglandins

254. What is the preferred route of administration for prostaglandins in Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)?

255 / 1125

Category: Prostaglandins

255. Which prostaglandin is commonly used intravaginally to induce uterine contractions for medical termination of pregnancy?

256 / 1125

Category: Vacuum aspiration

256. Under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, up to how many weeks of gestation can vacuum aspiration be performed as a safe method for pregnancy termination?

257 / 1125

Category: Vacuum aspiration

257. What is the primary advantage of vacuum aspiration over dilatation and curettage (D&C) in first-trimester pregnancy termination?

258 / 1125

Category: Dilatation & curettage (D&C)

258. According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017, what is the upper limit for MTP when two registered medical practitioners approve it?

259 / 1125

Category: Dilatation & curettage (D&C)

259. Which of the following is a correct statement about Dilatation and Curettage (D&C)?

260 / 1125

Category: Methods

260. In India, under what gestational age is MTP legally permitted without additional approvals?

261 / 1125

Category: Methods

261. Which method is commonly used in the first trimester for MTP?

262 / 1125

Category: Rape cases

262. What is the time limit for emergency hormonal contraception (EHC) to be effective after unprotected intercourse, including rape cases?

263 / 1125

Category: Rape cases

263. Under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, up to how many weeks can MTP be legally performed in cases of rape?

264 / 1125

Category: Health risk to mother or fetus

264. Why is it illegal to perform MTP for sex determination before birth?

265 / 1125

Category: Health risk to mother or fetus

265. Which of the following methods is considered relatively safe for MTP during the first trimester of pregnancy but becomes riskier when performed in the second trimester?

266 / 1125

Category: Contraceptive failure

266. Which of the following is an example of an emergency contraceptive method that can be used within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse?

267 / 1125

Category: Contraceptive failure

267. Under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971, up to which week of pregnancy is termination permitted in cases of contraceptive failure?

268 / 1125

Category: Indications

268. Which of the following is considered a safe and effective method for terminating a first-trimester pregnancy?

269 / 1125

Category: Indications

269. According to the *Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017*, what is the maximum gestational period up to which a pregnancy can be terminated with the opinion of one registered medical practitioner?

270 / 1125

Category: Terminating pregnancy before full term

270. Which of the following methods is NOT used for Medical Termination of Pregnancy during the first trimester?

271 / 1125

Category: Terminating pregnancy before full term

271. Under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, what is the maximum gestational age up to which MTP is legally permitted under specific conditions?

272 / 1125

Category: Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)

272. Which method of MTP involves the administration of prostaglandins intravaginally to increase uterine contractions?

273 / 1125

Category: Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)

273. Under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017, what is the requirement for terminating a pregnancy between 12 to 24 weeks?

274 / 1125

Category: MTP Act (1971 & amendment)

274. Which of the following is NOT a valid ground for Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) under the MTP Act?

275 / 1125

Category: MTP Act (1971 & amendment)

275. Under the MTP Act (1971 & Amendment), how many registered medical practitioners are required to approve a termination of pregnancy in the second trimester (12 to 20 weeks)?

276 / 1125

Category: Legal Aspect

276. According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017, how many registered medical practitioners are required to approve an MTP between 12 to 24 weeks of pregnancy?

277 / 1125

Category: Legal Aspect

277. According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, up to how many weeks of pregnancy can MTP be performed if there is a risk of congenital malformation in the child?

278 / 1125

Category: Prostaglandins

278. How are prostaglandins typically administered in Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)?

279 / 1125

Category: Prostaglandins

279. Which prostaglandins are commonly used in Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)?

280 / 1125

Category: Vacuum aspiration

280. Until which gestational age is vacuum aspiration typically recommended for Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)?

281 / 1125

Category: Vacuum aspiration

281. What is the primary method used in vacuum aspiration for terminating a first-trimester pregnancy?

282 / 1125

Category: Dilatation & curettage (D&C)

282. Under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, which of the following is NOT an indication for MTP?

283 / 1125

Category: Dilatation & curettage (D&C)

283. What is the first step in the Dilatation and Curettage (D&C) procedure for Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)?

284 / 1125

Category: Methods

284. Which of the following is a surgical method used for terminating pregnancy in the second trimester?

285 / 1125

Category: Methods

285. What is the most common method used for medical termination of pregnancy in the first trimester?

286 / 1125

Category: Rape cases

286. Which method of MTP involves removing the implanted ovum by vacuum aspiration?

287 / 1125

Category: Rape cases

287. What is the maximum legal duration of pregnancy for which MTP can be performed under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971?

288 / 1125

Category: Health risk to mother or fetus

288. During which trimester is Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) considered relatively safer?

289 / 1125

Category: Health risk to mother or fetus

289. Which method of Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) involves the use of prostaglandins like $PGE_2$ and $PGF_{2\alpha}$ administered intravaginally to induce uterine contractions?

290 / 1125

Category: Contraceptive failure

290. Which of the following is an emergency contraceptive method used after unprotected intercourse to prevent pregnancy?

291 / 1125

Category: Contraceptive failure

291. Under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 (amended), up to how many weeks can MTP be performed if the pregnancy is a result of contraceptive failure?

292 / 1125

Category: Indications

292. Which of the following is NOT a valid indication for medical termination of pregnancy under the MTP Act, 1971?

293 / 1125

Category: Indications

293. According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 2017, up to how many weeks can a pregnancy be terminated based on the opinion of one registered medical practitioner?

294 / 1125

Category: Terminating pregnancy before full term

294. Which method of MTP involves suctioning out the implanted ovum and is considered safe up to 12 weeks of pregnancy?

295 / 1125

Category: Terminating pregnancy before full term

295. Under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 (amended in 2017), what is the maximum gestational age up to which MTP can be performed with the opinion of one registered medical practitioner?

296 / 1125

Category: Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)

296. Which method of MTP involves removing the implanted ovum by vacuum aspiration and is considered safe up to 12 weeks of pregnancy?

297 / 1125

Category: Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)

297. What is the maximum duration of pregnancy up to which MTP can be performed under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017, if supported by two medical practitioners?

298 / 1125

Category: Hormonal dose (within 72 hours)

298. According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017, what is the maximum gestational period up to which MTP can be performed with the opinion of two registered medical practitioners?

299 / 1125

Category: Hormonal dose (within 72 hours)

299. A woman takes emergency contraception containing levonorgestrel within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. What is the primary mechanism by which this method prevents pregnancy?

300 / 1125

Category: Morning-after pill

300. Which of the following statements correctly describes the components and purpose of the morning-after pill?

301 / 1125

Category: Morning-after pill

301. A woman takes the morning-after pill within 24 hours of unprotected intercourse. How does it primarily prevent pregnancy?

302 / 1125

Category: Emergency Contraception

302. In the context of Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP), which method is considered safe and effective for the first trimester up to 12 weeks?

303 / 1125

Category: Emergency Contraception

303. Which of the following correctly describes the primary mechanism of hormonal emergency contraception?

304 / 1125

Category: Tubectomy / tubal ligation — female

304. After undergoing tubal ligation, a woman reports experiencing irregular menstrual periods. Which of the following best explains this observation based on the known effects of the procedure?

305 / 1125

Category: Tubectomy / tubal ligation — female

305. A woman undergoes tubal ligation as a method of permanent contraception. What is the primary biological change that ensures pregnancy does not occur post-procedure?

306 / 1125

Category: Vasectomy — male

306. When comparing vasectomy to tubal ligation, which of the following statements highlights a key advantage of vasectomy over female sterilization?

307 / 1125

Category: Vasectomy — male

307. A male patient undergoes vasectomy and experiences minor swelling in the scrotal region post-surgery. Which of the following accurately describes the expected recovery timeline and implications based on standard vasectomy practices?

308 / 1125

Category: Surgical Methods (Sterilization)

308. A 32-year-old woman undergoes tubal ligation but later expresses regret due to changing life circumstances. Which of the following statements accurately describes the primary challenge associated with reversing this procedure?

309 / 1125

Category: Surgical Methods (Sterilization)

309. A couple has opted for male sterilization as a permanent contraceptive method. After the procedure, which physiological aspect remains unaffected while ensuring contraceptive efficacy?

310 / 1125

Category: Inhibit implantation

310. A patient is prescribed a hormone-releasing IUD (e.g., LNG-20). What is the primary mechanism by which this device prevents pregnancy compared to a non-medicated IUD like Lippes loop?

311 / 1125

Category: Inhibit implantation

311. A woman using a copper-releasing IUD as her contraceptive method experiences heavier menstrual bleeding and occasional cramping. She is considering switching to hormonal contraceptives but has concerns about side effects. Which of the following correctly compares the mechanisms and potential risks of these two methods?

312 / 1125

Category: Thicken cervical mucus

312. In a study comparing birth control methods, Method A has a failure rate of 5%, and Method B has a failure rate of 1%. If 1000 couples use each method for a year, what is the expected difference in unplanned pregnancies between the two methods?

313 / 1125

Category: Thicken cervical mucus

313. A country has a population growth rate of 2% per annum. If the current population is 50 million, how many years will it take for the population to double, assuming exponential growth?

314 / 1125

Category: Prevent ovulation

314. After unprotected intercourse, a woman takes a high dose of progestogen-estrogen combination within 24 hours. Which of the following best explains how this method prevents pregnancy?

315 / 1125

Category: Prevent ovulation

315. A woman is taking a contraceptive pill that contains progestogen only and needs to be taken daily. What is the primary mechanism by which this pill prevents pregnancy?

316 / 1125

Category: Mechanism:

316. A woman had unprotected intercourse and seeks emergency contraception within 48 hours. Which of the following is the most effective method recommended in such cases?

317 / 1125

Category: Mechanism:

317. A woman using the temperature method for contraception records her basal body temperature daily. On day 14 of her menstrual cycle, she observes a slight dip in temperature followed by a rise of $0.5^\circ C$ on day 15. What is the most appropriate interpretation of this observation?

318 / 1125

Category: Injections & implants

318. Which mechanism is common to both hormonal injections and implants but NOT to barrier methods like condoms?

319 / 1125

Category: Injections & implants

319. A woman has been using a progestogen-only implant for contraception. After 3 years, she wishes to conceive. Which of the following best describes when her fertility is likely to return after removal of the implant?

320 / 1125

Category: Saheli (non-steroidal pill, weekly)

320. How does Saheli's mode of contraception differ from that of the combined pill and the mini pill regarding ovulation and implantation?

321 / 1125

Category: Saheli (non-steroidal pill, weekly)

321. What distinguishes Saheli from traditional combined and mini contraceptive pills in terms of its administration frequency and hormonal composition?

322 / 1125

Category: Mini pill (progesterone only)

322. A healthcare provider counsels a patient about the mini pill's strict adherence requirement. What is a critical consequence if the patient fails to take the pill at the same time daily?

323 / 1125

Category: Mini pill (progesterone only)

323. A 32-year-old woman with a history of hypertension is advised against using combined oral contraceptives due to estrogen-related risks. She opts for the mini pill. Which mechanism ensures contraceptive efficacy in her case?

324 / 1125

Category: Oral pills: combined pill (estrogen + progesterone)

324. Which of the following conditions would make the combined oral contraceptive pill unsuitable for a woman?

325 / 1125

Category: Oral pills: combined pill (estrogen + progesterone)

325. A woman has been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill correctly for 6 months but misses a pill on day 15 of her cycle. She remembers it 36 hours later and takes the missed pill immediately. What is the most likely outcome if she continues her regimen as prescribed?

326 / 1125

Category: Hormonal Methods

326. How does Saheli differ from combined pills in terms of dosage frequency and composition?

327 / 1125

Category: Hormonal Methods

327. A woman is using a combined hormonal contraceptive pill but misses taking it for three consecutive days during the first week of her cycle. What is the most likely outcome considering the mechanism of action of combined pills and mini pills?

328 / 1125

Category: Increase phagocytosis of sperm

328. How does enhancing phagocytosis of sperm contribute to population control?

329 / 1125

Category: Increase phagocytosis of sperm

329. Which cell type primarily mediates the phagocytosis of sperm in the female reproductive tract?

330 / 1125

Category: Prevent fertilization & implantation

330. Which type of Intra-Uterine Device (IUD) alters the uterine lining to make it unsuitable for implantation while also releasing hormones to prevent ovulation?

331 / 1125

Category: Prevent fertilization & implantation

331. A couple prefers a contraceptive method that not only acts as a physical barrier but also chemically destroys sperms for increased effectiveness. Which combination should they use?

332 / 1125

Category: Mechanism:

332. After unprotected intercourse, a woman takes a progestogen-only pill within 24 hours. How does this method primarily prevent pregnancy?

333 / 1125

Category: Mechanism:

333. A woman opts for a long-term contraceptive method that releases progestogens to thicken cervical mucus and alter the endometrial lining. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of her chosen method?

334 / 1125

Category: Hormone-releasing: LNG-20, Progestasert

334. Which contraceptive method would be recommended for a woman who wants minimal hormonal side effects and prefers a non-permanent solution requiring annual replacement?

335 / 1125

Category: Hormone-releasing: LNG-20, Progestasert

335. A woman opts for a hormone-releasing IUD that lasts for 5 years and reduces menstrual bleeding. Which of the following best describes the working mechanism of her chosen IUD?

336 / 1125

Category: Copper-T types: CuT, Cu-7, Multiload-375

336. What is the primary reason for Multiload-375's higher contraceptive effectiveness compared to standard Copper-T devices?

337 / 1125

Category: Copper-T types: CuT, Cu-7, Multiload-375

337. A patient using CuT IUD reports excessive menstrual bleeding. Which of the following mechanisms explains this side effect caused by copper-releasing IUDs?

338 / 1125

Category: Non-medicated: Lippes Loop

338. Which of the following is a common side effect associated with the Lippes Loop but NOT typical in hormone-releasing IUDs?

339 / 1125

Category: Non-medicated: Lippes Loop

339. What is the primary biological mechanism by which the Lippes Loop prevents pregnancy?

340 / 1125

Category: Intrauterine Devices (IUD/IUCD)

340. A woman using a non-medicated IUD like Lippes loop is most likely to experience which of the following complications initially?

341 / 1125

Category: Intrauterine Devices (IUD/IUCD)

341. How does a hormone-releasing IUD like LNG-20 primarily prevent pregnancy?

342 / 1125

Category: Spermicidal foams/jellies

342. Nonoxynol-9 is the active ingredient in most spermicidal foams. How does it primarily act to prevent conception?

343 / 1125

Category: Spermicidal foams/jellies

343. A couple is considering using spermicidal jellies as their primary contraceptive method. Which of the following statements accurately describes the limitations of relying solely on spermicides for contraception?

344 / 1125

Category: Diaphragm, cervical cap

344. What differentiates a cervical cap from a diaphragm in terms of placement and function?

345 / 1125

Category: Diaphragm, cervical cap

345. Which of the following is a crucial step for the proper use of a diaphragm as a barrier contraceptive?

346 / 1125

Category: Female condom (Femidom)

346. Which property of polyurethane, the material used in female condoms, directly contributes to its advantage over latex condoms?

347 / 1125

Category: Female condom (Femidom)

347. What is the primary reason for the difference in effectiveness rates between perfect use (95%) and typical use (79%) of the female condom?

348 / 1125

Category: Male condom (Nirodh)

348. Among various contraceptive methods available, why might a healthcare provider specifically recommend the male condom 'Nirodh' to sexually active individuals apart from its contraceptive benefits?

349 / 1125

Category: Male condom (Nirodh)

349. A couple is using the male condom 'Nirodh' as their contraceptive method. However, they occasionally experience breakage during intercourse. Which of the following could be a potential reason for this issue?

350 / 1125

Category: Barrier Methods

350. During a health awareness program, a participant asks why barrier methods are particularly recommended for new couples who may want children later. Which of these explains this recommendation best?

351 / 1125

Category: Barrier Methods

351. A couple is considering contraceptive options that provide protection against STIs while being reversible and having minimal side effects. They wish to combine a physical barrier with chemical spermicide for maximum effectiveness. Which combination would you recommend as most appropriate?

352 / 1125

Category: Post-coital douching (less effective)

352. Which of the following is a potential adverse effect associated with frequent use of post-coital douching as a contraceptive method?

353 / 1125

Category: Post-coital douching (less effective)

353. What is the primary reason why post-coital douching is considered a less effective contraceptive method compared to barrier or hormonal methods?

354 / 1125

Category: Coitus interruptus

354. What is the primary mechanism of coitus interruptus as a contraceptive method?

355 / 1125

Category: Coitus interruptus

355. Why is coitus interruptus considered less reliable compared to other contraceptive methods?

356 / 1125

Category: Lactational amenorrhea

356. How long can lactational amenorrhea be reliably used as a natural contraceptive method under ideal conditions?

357 / 1125

Category: Lactational amenorrhea

357. A new mother is practicing lactational amenorrhea as a contraceptive method. She exclusively breastfeeds her baby but also introduces occasional formula feeds after 3 months. What is the likely impact on the effectiveness of this method?

358 / 1125

Category: Cervical mucus method

358. Which of the following factors can lead to inaccurate interpretation of cervical mucus observations in natural family planning?

359 / 1125

Category: Cervical mucus method

359. A woman observes her cervical mucus daily and notes that it has become stretchy, clear, and slippery. Based on the cervical mucus method, what does this observation indicate?

360 / 1125

Category: Temperature method

360. Which of the following scenarios would most likely render the temperature method unreliable for predicting ovulation?

361 / 1125

Category: Temperature method

361. A woman records her basal body temperature daily. On day 14 of her menstrual cycle, she observes a slight dip in her temperature, followed by a rise of $0.5^\circ \text{F}$ on day 15. Assuming no external influences, what can be inferred about her fertile window?

362 / 1125

Category: Periodic abstinence

362. Which of the following conditions makes the periodic abstinence method more likely to fail in preventing pregnancy?

363 / 1125

Category: Periodic abstinence

363. A woman has a regular menstrual cycle of 28 days. If she wants to avoid pregnancy using the periodic abstinence method, on which days should she abstain from coitus?

364 / 1125

Category: Natural Methods

364. A breastfeeding mother who exclusively nurses her 3-month-old baby wants to use natural contraceptive methods. Her cervical mucus shows no significant changes in consistency or quantity since delivery. What is the most reliable advice regarding her fertility status?

365 / 1125

Category: Natural Methods

365. A woman has regular 28-day menstrual cycles. She observes her basal body temperature pattern over three months: consistently rising by $0.5^\circ F$ on day 14 and remaining elevated until day 26. If she wants to avoid pregnancy using natural methods, which days should be considered unsafe for intercourse if combining both calendar and temperature methods?

366 / 1125

Category: Minimal side-effects

366. A couple opts for permanent sterilization. What would be the most accurate statement regarding their choices and potential side effects?

367 / 1125

Category: Minimal side-effects

367. Which of the following statements accurately describes 'Saheli', a contraceptive pill for females?

368 / 1125

Category: Easily available & affordable

368. Which of the following correctly describes the mechanism of action of an intrauterine device (IUD)?

369 / 1125

Category: Easily available & affordable

369. A couple is using the natural family planning method by combining the calendar, temperature, mucus, and periodic abstinence methods. If the woman's menstrual cycle is 28 days, and ovulation occurs on day 14, which period is considered unsafe for intercourse?

370 / 1125

Category: Safe, effective, reversible

370. Which of the following best explains why copper-releasing IUDs are effective contraceptives?

371 / 1125

Category: Safe, effective, reversible

371. A couple is using the lactational amenorrhea method for contraception. Under which condition is this method most effective?

372 / 1125

Category: Ideal Contraceptive Features

372. A new hormonal contraceptive pill claims to have an effectiveness rate of 99% when taken correctly. Out of 10,000 women using it for a year, how many unintended pregnancies would statistically occur if all used it perfectly?

373 / 1125

Category: Ideal Contraceptive Features

373. A couple is considering natural methods of contraception as they prefer non-invasive options. The husband incorrectly states that the lactational amenorrhea method (LAM) can be used indefinitely after childbirth for birth control. What is the accurate condition under which LAM remains effective?

374 / 1125

Category: Population regulation

374. In the rhythm method of contraception, a woman tracks her menstrual cycle to determine safe and unsafe days. Which of the following correctly describes the most fertile window in a 28-day menstrual cycle?

375 / 1125

Category: Population regulation

375. A couple is using the lactational amenorrhea method (LAM) as contraception. Which of the following conditions must be strictly met for this method to be effective?

376 / 1125

Category: Maternal & child health

376. In a rural area with high fertility rates, which integrated approach would be most effective for both population control and improving child health according to RCH programmes?

377 / 1125

Category: Maternal & child health

377. A pregnant woman with hemoglobin level of 9 g/dL is advised to take iron supplements and folic acid during her antenatal care. What would be the most likely long-term impact if she doesn't follow this advice?

378 / 1125

Category: Family planning

378. A 30-year-old woman undergoes tubal ligation but later decides to have another child. Which of the following options accurately describes her situation?

379 / 1125

Category: Family planning

379. A couple is using the lactational amenorrhea method for birth control. Which of the following conditions must STRICTLY be met for this method to be effective?

380 / 1125

Category: Need for Birth Control

380. A woman opts for a hormone-releasing IUD (e.g., LNG-20). What is the primary mechanism by which this device prevents pregnancy?

381 / 1125

Category: Need for Birth Control

381. A couple is using the mucus method as part of natural family planning. Which of the following statements accurately describes how this method works?

382 / 1125

Category: Birth Control & Contraception

382. A couple practicing the symptothermal method of natural family planning wants to identify their most fertile period. Which combination of indicators would provide the most accurate prediction?

383 / 1125

Category: Birth Control & Contraception

383. A couple is considering long-term contraception with minimal side effects and no risk of sexually transmitted infections. The woman has a history of heavy menstrual bleeding. Which contraceptive method would be most suitable for them?

384 / 1125

Category: Media campaigns (“We Two, Our Two”)

384. Which of these combinations would MOST likely help achieve population stabilization in line with Earth's carrying capacity while considering India's current situation as per 2011 census data?

385 / 1125

Category: Media campaigns (“We Two, Our Two”)

385. A country has a birth rate of 22 per thousand and a death rate of 8 per thousand. If its population is 50 million, what will be its annual growth rate in percentage? Also consider that the government implements policies to reduce the birth rate by 20% through awareness campaigns like "We Two, Our Two". What will be the new growth rate?

386 / 1125

Category: Family planning incentives

386. How does the Indian government utilize mass media in its family welfare programme?

387 / 1125

Category: Family planning incentives

387. What is the primary objective of India's National Family Welfare Programme launched in 1951?

388 / 1125

Category: Marriage age laws

388. What is a primary health benefit of enforcing a minimum marriage age of 21 years for males and 18 years for females in developing countries?

389 / 1125

Category: Marriage age laws

389. In a country where the legal marriage age for females is increased from 16 to 18 years, what would be the most likely impact on population growth based on demographic transition theory?

390 / 1125

Category: Government Initiatives

390. Which of the following is NOT a key objective of the Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) Programmes in India?

391 / 1125

Category: Government Initiatives

391. The National Family Welfare Programme in India was launched with the primary objective to:

392 / 1125

Category: Malnutrition & health crisis

392. In a region experiencing severe malnutrition due to overpopulation, the average calorie intake per person is 1800 kcal/day, which is below the recommended 2200 kcal/day. If the population grows by 2% annually and agricultural production increases by only 1% annually, how many years will it take for the calorie deficit per person to double, assuming no changes in food distribution or imports?

393 / 1125

Category: Malnutrition & health crisis

393. A country with a rapidly growing population is considering implementing family planning programs to control the growth. If the current population is 1.2 billion with an annual growth rate of 1.5%, and assuming the government aims to reduce the growth rate to 1% through contraceptives with 90% efficacy, what percentage of the reproductive-age population needs to use contraceptives to achieve this target?

394 / 1125

Category: Unemployment, poverty

394. In a region with a poverty rate of 12%, if the population density increases from 200 people per square kilometer to 250 people per square kilometer while maintaining the same poverty rate, what will be the new number of poor individuals per square kilometer?

395 / 1125

Category: Unemployment, poverty

395. Considering a country with an annual population growth rate of 3% and unemployment rate of 8%, what will be the approximate number of unemployed individuals after 5 years if the current population is 50 million and the unemployment rate remains constant? Assume no change in labor force participation rate.

396 / 1125

Category: Pressure on resources

396. Which of the following best explains why overpopulation leads to increased carbon emissions despite the adoption of renewable energy technologies in some regions?

397 / 1125

Category: Pressure on resources

397. A country has a birth rate of 25 per thousand and a death rate of 8 per thousand. If the current population is 50 million, what will be the approximate population after 10 years, assuming no migration and constant growth rate?

398 / 1125

Category: Problems of Overpopulation

398. A couple wants to use the most effective natural contraception method that requires tracking physiological changes rather than calendar-based calculations. Which method should they choose considering maximum effectiveness while avoiding artificial methods?

399 / 1125

Category: Problems of Overpopulation

399. In a hypothetical country with a carrying capacity of 500 million people, the current population is 400 million growing at 2% annual growth rate. Assuming constant resources, what would be the approximate time (in years) before this population reaches 90% of its carrying capacity?

400 / 1125

Category: Improved medical care & nutrition

400. In a rural community with limited access to healthcare facilities, which birth control method would be most effective if the primary goal is to provide a low-cost, non-invasive option that does not require daily administration or medical supervision?

401 / 1125

Category: Improved medical care & nutrition

401. A country has experienced significant improvements in medical care and nutrition over the past 50 years. If the birth rate remains constant but the death rate decreases due to these advancements, what is the most likely long-term consequence on the population growth rate?

402 / 1125

Category: High birth rate, low mortality

402. Which contraceptive method relies on the absence of ovulation during intense lactation?

403 / 1125

Category: High birth rate, low mortality

403. What is the primary reason for the high population growth rate in India despite a declining death rate?

404 / 1125

Category: Population Growth Factors

404. India has 2.4% of world's land area supporting 16% of global population. If world population is 8 billion and total land area is 149 million km$^2$, what is India's approximate population density (people per km$^2$) compared to world average?

405 / 1125

Category: Population Growth Factors

405. A country has a birth rate of 25 per 1000 and death rate of 8 per 1000. If the current population is 50 million, what will be the approximate population after 20 years assuming constant growth rate and no migration?

406 / 1125

Category: Calendar (thythm) method,

406. Why is the calendar method considered unreliable despite its simplicity?

407 / 1125

Category: Calendar (thythm) method,

407. A woman has a regular menstrual cycle of 28 days. If her last menstrual period started on the 1st of January, what is the most likely unsafe period for conception according to the calendar method?

408 / 1125

Category: Natural C ontraceptive Methods

408. A breastfeeding mother wants to rely on the Lactational Amenorrhea Method for contraception. Under what conditions will this method be effective?

409 / 1125

Category: Natural C ontraceptive Methods

409. A woman has a regular 28-day menstrual cycle. She observes a slight dip in her basal body temperature on day 14 followed by a rise of $0.5^\circ F$ on day 15. Her cervical mucus becomes thin and increases in quantity on day 14 and remains so until day 16. According to these observations, when should she abstain from intercourse to avoid pregnancy?

410 / 1125

Category: METHODS OF BIRTH CONTROL AND CONTRACEPTIVE DEVICES

410. What is the primary reason for the effectiveness of lactational amenorrhea as a contraceptive method?

411 / 1125

Category: METHODS OF BIRTH CONTROL AND CONTRACEPTIVE DEVICES

411. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of action for hormone-releasing intrauterine devices (IUDs)?

412 / 1125

Category: POPULATION EXPLOSION AND BIRTH CONTROL

412. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive as described in the syllabus?

413 / 1125

Category: POPULATION EXPLOSION AND BIRTH CONTROL

413. A country's population is growing at a rate of 2% per year. If the current population is 1 billion, what will be the population after 10 years? (Use the formula for exponential growth: $P = P_0(1 + r)^t$ where $P_0$ is initial population, $r$ is growth rate, and $t$ is time in years.)

414 / 1125

Category: Hormonal dose (within 72 hours)

414. Which method of medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) involves administering prostaglandins intravaginally to induce uterine contractions?

415 / 1125

Category: Hormonal dose (within 72 hours)

415. What is the primary active component in emergency hormonal contraception (EHC), and within what time frame should it ideally be taken after unprotected intercourse?

416 / 1125

Category: Morning-after pill

416. Which of the following statements about Saheli, the new oral contraceptive for females, is correct?

417 / 1125

Category: Morning-after pill

417. What is the maximum time window within which emergency hormonal contraception (EHC) containing progestogen and levonorgestrel can be taken after unprotected intercourse to effectively prevent pregnancy?

418 / 1125

Category: Emergency Contraception

418. What factor significantly influences the effectiveness of emergency contraceptive pills?

419 / 1125

Category: Emergency Contraception

419. What is the primary mechanism of Emergency Hormonal Contraception (EHC) to prevent pregnancy?

420 / 1125

Category: Tubectomy / tubal ligation — female

420. Which of the following statements about tubal ligation is correct?

421 / 1125

Category: Tubectomy / tubal ligation — female

421. What is the primary purpose of tubal ligation in females?

422 / 1125

Category: Vasectomy — male

422. Which statement is true regarding the effects of vasectomy?

423 / 1125

Category: Vasectomy — male

423. What is the primary purpose of a vasectomy?

424 / 1125

Category: Surgical Methods (Sterilization)

424. Which statement about tubal ligation in females is accurate?

425 / 1125

Category: Surgical Methods (Sterilization)

425. What is the primary physiological change in males after undergoing a vasectomy?

426 / 1125

Category: Inhibit implantation

426. What is the primary function of progestogen in hormonal contraceptive pills?

427 / 1125

Category: Inhibit implantation

427. Which of the following is a hormone-releasing IUD?

428 / 1125

Category: Thicken cervical mucus

428. What hormone is primarily responsible for thickening cervical mucus as a contraceptive measure?

429 / 1125

Category: Thicken cervical mucus

429. Which of the following birth control methods primarily works by thickening cervical mucus to prevent sperm entry?

430 / 1125

Category: Prevent ovulation

430. What is a unique feature of the Saheli contraceptive pill compared to other hormonal contraceptives?

431 / 1125

Category: Prevent ovulation

431. Which of the following correctly describes the primary mechanism by which the combined pill prevents pregnancy?

432 / 1125

Category: Mechanism:

432. What is the primary function of Copper-releasing IUDs like CuT?

433 / 1125

Category: Mechanism:

433. Which method involves tracking the consistency of cervical mucus to identify fertile days?

434 / 1125

Category: Injections & implants

434. How long does a contraceptive implant like Nexplanon typically provide protection against pregnancy after insertion?

435 / 1125

Category: Injections & implants

435. What is the primary mechanism by which progestogen-only injections (e.g., Depo-Provera) prevent pregnancy?

436 / 1125

Category: Saheli (non-steroidal pill, weekly)

436. How does the mechanism of action of the combined pill differ from that of the mini pill?

437 / 1125

Category: Saheli (non-steroidal pill, weekly)

437. What is the primary advantage of Saheli over other oral contraceptive pills?

438 / 1125

Category: Mini pill (progesterone only)

438. How frequently must a woman take the mini pill to maintain its contraceptive effect?

439 / 1125

Category: Mini pill (progesterone only)

439. What is the primary mechanism by which the mini pill (progesterone-only pill) prevents pregnancy?

440 / 1125

Category: Oral pills: combined pill (estrogen + progesterone)

440. How many days must a woman take the combined pill continuously before taking a break for menstruation?

441 / 1125

Category: Oral pills: combined pill (estrogen + progesterone)

441. What is the role of progestogen in the combined oral contraceptive pill (estrogen + progesterone)?

442 / 1125

Category: Hormonal Methods

442. What is the key difference between the combined pill and the mini pill in terms of their administration schedule?

443 / 1125

Category: Hormonal Methods

443. What is the primary mechanism of action of progestogen in combined oral contraceptive pills?

444 / 1125

Category: Increase phagocytosis of sperm

444. What role do antibodies play in enhancing phagocytosis of sperm in birth control methods?

445 / 1125

Category: Increase phagocytosis of sperm

445. Which of the following cells are primarily responsible for increasing phagocytosis of sperm in the female reproductive tract during birth control?

446 / 1125

Category: Prevent fertilization & implantation

446. A combined oral contraceptive pill contains estrogen and progestogen. How does this combination prevent pregnancy?

447 / 1125

Category: Prevent fertilization & implantation

447. A woman opts for a non-medicated IUD as a contraceptive method. Which of the following best describes the primary mechanism of action of this device?

448 / 1125

Category: Mechanism:

448. What is the primary function of a diaphragm as a barrier contraceptive?

449 / 1125

Category: Mechanism:

449. Which of the following natural birth control methods relies on tracking changes in cervical mucus to determine the fertile period?

450 / 1125

Category: Hormone-releasing: LNG-20, Progestasert

450. What is a common side effect associated with hormone-releasing IUDs like Progestasert and LNG-20?

451 / 1125

Category: Hormone-releasing: LNG-20, Progestasert

451. Which hormone is released by the LNG-20 IUD to prevent pregnancy?

452 / 1125

Category: Copper-T types: CuT, Cu-7, Multiload-375

452. How do copper-releasing IUDs primarily prevent conception?

453 / 1125

Category: Copper-T types: CuT, Cu-7, Multiload-375

453. Which of the following is not a copper-releasing intrauterine device?

454 / 1125

Category: Non-medicated: Lippes Loop

454. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using the Lippes Loop?

455 / 1125

Category: Non-medicated: Lippes Loop

455. How does the Lippes Loop primarily function as a contraceptive method?

456 / 1125

Category: Spermicidal foams/jellies

456. Why are spermicidal agents often recommended to be used with barrier methods like condoms or diaphragms?

457 / 1125

Category: Spermicidal foams/jellies

457. What is the primary mechanism of spermicidal foams/jellies in preventing pregnancy?

458 / 1125

Category: Diaphragm, cervical cap

458. What is the primary difference between a cervical cap and a diaphragm?

459 / 1125

Category: Diaphragm, cervical cap

459. Which of the following statements about diaphragms is correct?

460 / 1125

Category: Female condom (Femidom)

460. What is one disadvantage of using a female condom (Femidom) compared to a male condom?

461 / 1125

Category: Female condom (Femidom)

461. Which material is used in the construction of a female condom (Femidom), and what is its primary purpose?

462 / 1125

Category: Male condom (Nirodh)

462. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of using male condoms (Nirodh)?

463 / 1125

Category: Male condom (Nirodh)

463. What is the primary purpose of a male condom (Nirodh)?

464 / 1125

Category: Barrier Methods

464. What is the importance of spermicidal agents when used with barrier methods?

465 / 1125

Category: Barrier Methods

465. Which of the following is a common advantage of using barrier methods for birth control?

466 / 1125

Category: Post-coital douching (less effective)

466. What is the primary action involved in post-coital douching as a contraceptive method?

467 / 1125

Category: Post-coital douching (less effective)

467. Why is post-coital douching considered a less effective method of contraception?

468 / 1125

Category: Coitus interruptus

468. Which of the following best describes the effectiveness of douching as a method of contraception?

469 / 1125

Category: Coitus interruptus

469. Why is coitus interruptus considered a less reliable method of contraception?

470 / 1125

Category: Lactational amenorrhea

470. What is the primary reason behind the effectiveness of lactational amenorrhea as a contraceptive method?

471 / 1125

Category: Lactational amenorrhea

471. How long is the lactational amenorrhea method considered effective as a natural contraceptive after childbirth?

472 / 1125

Category: Cervical mucus method

472. What is the primary purpose of checking cervical mucus daily in the mucus method?

473 / 1125

Category: Cervical mucus method

473. During which phase of the menstrual cycle does cervical mucus become thin and increase in quantity?

474 / 1125

Category: Temperature method

474. Which of the following factors can negatively impact the accuracy of the temperature method for birth control?

475 / 1125

Category: Temperature method

475. According to the temperature method of birth control, what pattern does basal body temperature follow during ovulation?

476 / 1125

Category: Calendar method

476. Which of the following is a major limitation of the calendar method for birth control?

477 / 1125

Category: Calendar method

477. A woman has menstrual cycles ranging from 25 to 30 days. According to the calendar method, what is her fertile window?

478 / 1125

Category: Periodic abstinence

478. Which of the following natural methods involves washing out the vagina immediately after intercourse but does not guarantee complete prevention of pregnancy?

479 / 1125

Category: Periodic abstinence

479. A couple is practicing the periodic abstinence method to avoid pregnancy. If the woman has a regular menstrual cycle of 28 days, on which day should they resume coitus after abstaining to minimize the risk of conception?

480 / 1125

Category: Natural Methods

480. For how many months can the Lactational Amenorrhea Method be effective as a natural contraceptive if the mother exclusively breastfeeds?

481 / 1125

Category: Natural Methods

481. Which of the following is a natural method of contraception that relies on tracking basal body temperature to identify ovulation?

482 / 1125

Category: Minimal side-effects

482. Which contraceptive method is considered safer with minimal side-effects for lactating mothers?

483 / 1125

Category: Minimal side-effects

483. Which of the following birth control methods is known for having minimal side-effects due to its non-hormonal nature?

484 / 1125

Category: Easily available & affordable

484. What is the primary purpose of the Family Welfare Programme in India?

485 / 1125

Category: Easily available & affordable

485. Which of the following contraceptive methods is based on preventing the implantation of a fertilized egg in the uterus?

486 / 1125

Category: Safe, effective, reversible

486. What is the primary mechanism of action of hormonal contraceptives that prevents pregnancy?

487 / 1125

Category: Safe, effective, reversible

487. ) Which of the following is NOT a type of intra-uterine device (IUD) used for contraception?

488 / 1125

Category: Ideal Contraceptive Features

488. Which contraceptive method involves the use of copper-releasing devices?

489 / 1125

Category: Ideal Contraceptive Features

489. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive?

490 / 1125

Category: Population regulation

490. Which of the following contraceptive methods involves placing a device in the uterus to prevent implantation of the fertilized egg?

491 / 1125

Category: Population regulation

491. What is the major reason behind the rapid increase in human population in recent times?

492 / 1125

Category: Maternal & child health

492. What is the primary advantage of using condoms as a birth control method?

493 / 1125

Category: Maternal & child health

493. Which natural family planning method involves monitoring changes in basal body temperature to estimate fertile days?

494 / 1125

Category: Family planning

494. What is the primary function of an Intra-Uterine Device (IUD) in birth control?

495 / 1125

Category: Family planning

495. Which of the following is a natural family planning method based on observing changes in cervical mucus to determine fertile periods?

496 / 1125

Category: Need for Birth Control

496. Which of the following correctly describes the function of spermicidal agents in contraception?

497 / 1125

Category: Need for Birth Control

497. A woman has a menstrual cycle of 28 days, and ovulation occurs on day 14. On which days is she most likely to conceive if she has unprotected intercourse?

498 / 1125

Category: Birth Control & Contraception

498. How do copper-releasing IUDs primarily prevent pregnancy?

499 / 1125

Category: Birth Control & Contraception

499. Which of the following natural birth control methods involves monitoring basal body temperature to estimate fertile days?

500 / 1125

Category: Media campaigns (“We Two, Our Two”)

500. Which of the following is a key focus area of media campaigns addressing population explosion?

501 / 1125

Category: Media campaigns (“We Two, Our Two”)

501. What is the primary objective of media campaigns like "Hum Do Hamare Do" in India?

502 / 1125

Category: Family planning incentives

502. Which of the following methods is used by the government to promote family planning through mass media in India?

503 / 1125

Category: Family planning incentives

503. What was the primary objective of the National Family Welfare Programme launched in India in 1951?

504 / 1125

Category: Marriage age laws

504. Which of the following is NOT a rationale behind setting a minimum marriageable age in India?

505 / 1125

Category: Marriage age laws

505. What is the legal marriageable age for males in India as per the current laws?

506 / 1125

Category: Government Initiatives

506. Which of the following is NOT a goal of the Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) Programmes?

507 / 1125

Category: Government Initiatives

507. What is the primary objective of the Family Welfare Programme launched in India in 1951?

508 / 1125

Category: Malnutrition & health crisis

508. Which method of artificial contraception involves placing a device in the uterus to prevent implantation of a fertilized egg?

509 / 1125

Category: Malnutrition & health crisis

509. A couple is using the calendar method of natural family planning. If a woman has a 28-day menstrual cycle, on which days is she most likely to be fertile?

510 / 1125

Category: Unemployment, poverty

510. Which of the following is a direct consequence of high birth rates in low-income communities?

511 / 1125

Category: Unemployment, poverty

511. Rapid population growth can lead to higher unemployment rates primarily because:

512 / 1125

Category: Pressure on resources

512. Which contraceptive method relies on tracking physiological changes during menstrual cycles rather than using physical/chemical barriers?

513 / 1125

Category: Pressure on resources

513. India supports more than 16% of world's population while occupying only 2.4% of land area. What is the primary reason for this high population density leading to pressure on resources?

514 / 1125

Category: Problems of Overpopulation

514. Which government initiative in India aims to stabilize population growth by promoting family planning services?

515 / 1125

Category: Problems of Overpopulation

515. What is a major consequence of overpopulation in terms of resource availability?

516 / 1125

Category: Improved medical care & nutrition

516. Which of the following is a surgical birth control method for females?

517 / 1125

Category: Improved medical care & nutrition

517. What is one of the major impacts of improved medical care on population growth?

518 / 1125

Category: High birth rate, low mortality

518. Which of the following measures is part of India's Family Welfare Programme to control population growth?

519 / 1125

Category: High birth rate, low mortality

519. What is the primary reason for the high population growth rate in India despite declining death rates?

520 / 1125

Category: Population Growth Factors

520. Why is controlling population growth essential according to the concept of carrying capacity?

521 / 1125

Category: Population Growth Factors

521. What is the primary reason for India's high population growth rate?

522 / 1125

Category: Calendar (thythm) method,

522. Which of the following is a major limitation of the calendar (rhythm) method?

523 / 1125

Category: Calendar (thythm) method,

523. A woman has tracked her menstrual cycles for the past year. Her shortest cycle lasted 24 days, and her longest cycle lasted 32 days. According to the calendar method, what is her estimated fertile window?

524 / 1125

Category: Natural C ontraceptive Methods

524. What is the main reason for the unreliability of the Lactational Amenorrhea Method after six months of childbirth?

525 / 1125

Category: Natural C ontraceptive Methods

525. Which natural contraceptive method relies on monitoring changes in a woman's body temperature to estimate the fertile period?

526 / 1125

Category: METHODS OF BIRTH CONTROL AND CONTRACEPTIVE DEVICES

526. How does the combined oral contraceptive pill primarily work to prevent pregnancy?

527 / 1125

Category: METHODS OF BIRTH CONTROL AND CONTRACEPTIVE DEVICES

527. Which of the following is a hormone-releasing intra-uterine device (IUD)?

528 / 1125

Category: POPULATION EXPLOSION AND BIRTH CONTROL

528. What is the primary mechanism of action of Copper-T (a type of IUD)?

529 / 1125

Category: POPULATION EXPLOSION AND BIRTH CONTROL

529. Which of the following statements accurately describes the Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM)?

530 / 1125

Category: Hormonal dose (within 72 hours)

530. Within how many hours after unprotected intercourse should the hormonal dose be taken for maximum effectiveness?

531 / 1125

Category: Hormonal dose (within 72 hours)

531. What is the primary mechanism by which the hormonal dose (morning-after pill) works?

532 / 1125

Category: Morning-after pill

532. Which of the following is a component commonly found in emergency hormonal contraception (EHC)?

533 / 1125

Category: Morning-after pill

533. What is the maximum time frame within which the morning-after pill should be taken after unprotected intercourse to be effective?

534 / 1125

Category: Emergency Contraception

534. Which of the following statements about emergency contraception is correct?

535 / 1125

Category: Emergency Contraception

535. What is the time frame within which Emergency Hormonal Contraception (EHC) must be administered to be effective?

536 / 1125

Category: Tubectomy / tubal ligation — female

536. Which of the following is a common effect observed after tubal ligation?

537 / 1125

Category: Tubectomy / tubal ligation — female

537. What is the primary purpose of tubal ligation in females?

538 / 1125

Category: Vasectomy — male

538. Which of the following statements is true about the effects of vasectomy?

539 / 1125

Category: Vasectomy — male

539. What is the primary purpose of a vasectomy?

540 / 1125

Category: Surgical Methods (Sterilization)

540. What happens in tubal ligation as a method of female sterilization?

541 / 1125

Category: Surgical Methods (Sterilization)

541. What is the primary purpose of a vasectomy in male sterilization?

542 / 1125

Category: Inhibit implantation

542. How does the mini pill primarily prevent pregnancy?

543 / 1125

Category: Inhibit implantation

543. ) Which of the following is a hormone-releasing IUD?

544 / 1125

Category: Thicken cervical mucus

544. What is one primary effect of thickening cervical mucus in birth control?

545 / 1125

Category: Thicken cervical mucus

545. Which birth control method thickens cervical mucus to prevent sperm from reaching the egg?

546 / 1125

Category: Prevent ovulation

546. Which of the following is NOT an effect of the progestogen-only pill (mini pill)?

547 / 1125

Category: Prevent ovulation

547. What is the primary function of estrogen in combined oral contraceptive pills?

548 / 1125

Category: Mechanism:

548. What is the main function of a male condom as a barrier contraceptive?

549 / 1125

Category: Mechanism:

549. Which method of contraception involves checking the stickiness of cervical mucus to estimate the fertile period?

550 / 1125

Category: Injections & implants

550. What is one of the primary functions of hormonal implants like Norplant?

551 / 1125

Category: Injections & implants

551. How often are progestogen-only injections like Depo-Provera administered for contraception?

552 / 1125

Category: Saheli (non-steroidal pill, weekly)

552. What type of preparation is Saheli, the new oral contraceptive for females?

553 / 1125

Category: Saheli (non-steroidal pill, weekly)

553. How frequently should the non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill Saheli be taken?

554 / 1125

Category: Mini pill (progesterone only)

554. How does the mini pill prevent pregnancy?

555 / 1125

Category: Mini pill (progesterone only)

555. What is the primary active ingredient in the mini pill?

556 / 1125

Category: Oral pills: combined pill (estrogen + progesterone)

556. How many days should a woman take the combined oral contraceptive pill before taking a break for menstruation?

557 / 1125

Category: Oral pills: combined pill (estrogen + progesterone)

557. What is the primary function of estrogen in the combined oral contraceptive pill?

558 / 1125

Category: Hormonal Methods

558. Which of the following statements about Saheli is correct?

559 / 1125

Category: Hormonal Methods

559. What is the primary function of estrogen in the combined hormonal contraceptive pill?

560 / 1125

Category: Prevent fertilization & implantation

560. How does a copper-releasing IUD primarily prevent pregnancy?

561 / 1125

Category: Prevent fertilization & implantation

561. Which of the following is a barrier method of contraception that physically prevents sperm from reaching the egg?

562 / 1125

Category: Mechanism:

562. Which of the following is a barrier contraceptive method used by females?

563 / 1125

Category: Mechanism:

563. Which method of natural contraception involves monitoring a woman's body temperature to predict ovulation?

564 / 1125

Category: Hormone-releasing: LNG-20, Progestasert

564. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using hormone-releasing IUDs like LNG-20 and Progestasert?

565 / 1125

Category: Hormone-releasing: LNG-20, Progestasert

565. What is the primary mechanism by which hormone-releasing IUDs like LNG-20 and Progestasert prevent pregnancy?

566 / 1125

Category: Copper-T types: CuT, Cu-7, Multiload-375

566. Which of the following is a type of copper-releasing IUD?

567 / 1125

Category: Copper-T types: CuT, Cu-7, Multiload-375

567. What is the primary mechanism by which copper-releasing IUDs like CuT, Cu-7, and Multiload-375 prevent pregnancy?

568 / 1125

Category: Non-medicated: Lippes Loop

568. Which of the following is NOT a type of IUD mentioned in the syllabus?

569 / 1125

Category: Non-medicated: Lippes Loop

569. What is the main function of the Lippes Loop?

570 / 1125

Category: Intrauterine Devices (IUD/IUCD)

570. What is one of the mechanisms by which copper-releasing IUDs work?

571 / 1125

Category: Intrauterine Devices (IUD/IUCD)

571. Which of the following is a type of hormone-releasing intrauterine device (IUD)?

572 / 1125

Category: Spermicidal foams/jellies

572. Why should spermicidal foams/jellies be used with condoms or diaphragms?

573 / 1125

Category: Spermicidal foams/jellies

573. Which of the following is NOT a form of spermicidal agent?

574 / 1125

Category: Diaphragm, cervical cap

574. What is the primary function of a cervical cap as a contraceptive method?

575 / 1125

Category: Diaphragm, cervical cap

575. Which of the following is a barrier contraceptive method that is inserted into the vagina to block sperm passage?

576 / 1125

Category: Female condom (Femidom)

576. Where does the inner ring of a female condom (Femidom) fit inside the body?

577 / 1125

Category: Female condom (Femidom)

577. What material is the female condom (Femidom) primarily made of?

578 / 1125

Category: Male condom (Nirodh)

578. Under which brand name are male condoms distributed free of cost by the Indian government?

579 / 1125

Category: Male condom (Nirodh)

579. What is the primary material used in the manufacturing of male condoms (Nirodh)?

580 / 1125

Category: Barrier Methods

580. What is the correct statement about spermicidal agents?

581 / 1125

Category: Barrier Methods

581. Which of the following is a key feature of male condoms?

582 / 1125

Category: Post-coital douching (less effective)

582. Why is post-coital douching considered less effective for contraception?

583 / 1125

Category: Post-coital douching (less effective)

583. What is the primary purpose of post-coital douching as a contraceptive method?

584 / 1125

Category: Coitus interruptus

584. Which of the following is a limitation of coitus interruptus?

585 / 1125

Category: Coitus interruptus

585. What is the primary mechanism of coitus interruptus as a contraceptive method?

586 / 1125

Category: Lactational amenorrhea

586. For how long is the lactational amenorrhea method considered effective after childbirth if breastfeeding is exclusive?

587 / 1125

Category: Lactational amenorrhea

587. What is the primary reason lactational amenorrhea prevents pregnancy?

588 / 1125

Category: Cervical mucus method

588. Which of the following is a characteristic of cervical mucus during ovulation?

589 / 1125

Category: Cervical mucus method

589. What is the purpose of observing cervical mucus daily in the cervical mucus method?

590 / 1125

Category: Temperature method

590. By how much does the body temperature rise after ovulation as per the temperature method?

591 / 1125

Category: Temperature method

591. What is the ideal time to measure body temperature for the temperature method of birth control?

592 / 1125

Category: Calendar method

592. Why is the calendar method less reliable for women with irregular menstrual cycles?

593 / 1125

Category: Calendar method

593. Which days are typically considered the fertile period in a woman's menstrual cycle when using the calendar method for birth control?

594 / 1125

Category: Periodic abstinence

594. How long can the lactational amenorrhea method effectively provide contraception post-childbirth if the mother fully breastfeeds?

595 / 1125

Category: Periodic abstinence

595. In the periodic abstinence method, which days are considered the fertile period in a typical menstrual cycle?

596 / 1125

Category: Natural Methods

596. The lactational amenorrhea method is effective as a natural contraceptive for up to how many months after childbirth?

597 / 1125

Category: Natural Methods

597. Which natural method of contraception is based on tracking changes in cervical mucus to identify fertile days?

598 / 1125

Category: Minimal side-effects

598. What is the primary advantage of lactational amenorrhea as a method of contraception?

599 / 1125

Category: Minimal side-effects

599. Which of the following contraceptive methods is a non-steroidal, once-a-week pill with minimal side effects?

600 / 1125

Category: Easily available & affordable

600. Which contraceptive method is a non-steroidal oral pill taken once a week with minimal side effects?

601 / 1125

Category: Easily available & affordable

601. Which method of natural family planning involves checking the stickiness of cervical mucus to estimate the fertile period?

602 / 1125

Category: Safe, effective, reversible

602. Which hormone combination is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill to prevent ovulation?

603 / 1125

Category: Safe, effective, reversible

603. Which of the following is a barrier contraceptive method that prevents sperm from entering the female reproductive tract?

604 / 1125

Category: Ideal Contraceptive Features

604. Which natural contraceptive method relies on avoiding coitus during the fertile period of the menstrual cycle?

605 / 1125

Category: Ideal Contraceptive Features

605. Which of the following is NOT a feature of an ideal contraceptive?

606 / 1125

Category: Population regulation

606. Which of the following is a natural method of family planning?

607 / 1125

Category: Population regulation

607. What is the primary reason for controlling the present rate of population growth?

608 / 1125

Category: Maternal & child health

608. Which of the following is a natural method of birth control?

609 / 1125

Category: Maternal & child health

609. What is the main objective of the Family Welfare Programme in India related to maternal health?

610 / 1125

Category: Family planning

610. Which method is NOT part of natural family planning techniques?

611 / 1125

Category: Family planning

611. What is the primary goal of family planning?

612 / 1125

Category: Need for Birth Control

612. Which of the following methods is NOT part of natural family planning?

613 / 1125

Category: Need for Birth Control

613. What is the primary reason for advocating birth control in overpopulated countries like India?

614 / 1125

Category: Birth Control & Contraception

614. What is the primary function of estrogen in combined oral contraceptive pills?

615 / 1125

Category: Birth Control & Contraception

615. Which of the following is a natural method of contraception?

616 / 1125

Category: Media campaigns (“We Two, Our Two”)

616. Which of the following is an incentive given to couples who adopt small families as part of India's population control measures?

617 / 1125

Category: Media campaigns (“We Two, Our Two”)

617. What is the slogan of the media campaign promoting a two-child norm in India?

618 / 1125

Category: Family planning incentives

618. Which of the following is an objective of the National Family Welfare Programme launched in India?

619 / 1125

Category: Family planning incentives

619. What is the slogan used in India's family welfare program to promote a two-child norm?

620 / 1125

Category: Marriage age laws

620. What is the primary objective of setting a legal minimum age for marriage in India?

621 / 1125

Category: Marriage age laws

621. What is the legal minimum age for marriage for females in India as per the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006?

622 / 1125

Category: Government Initiatives

622. Which program aims to provide family planning services along with maternal and child health care in India?

623 / 1125

Category: Government Initiatives

623. What was the primary objective of the National Family Welfare Programme launched in India in 1951?

624 / 1125

Category: Malnutrition & health crisis

624. Which of the following is a major consequence of uncontrolled population growth?

625 / 1125

Category: Malnutrition & health crisis

625. What is the primary reason for the sharp fall in death rate leading to population explosion?

626 / 1125

Category: Unemployment, poverty

626. How does overpopulation contribute to poverty?

627 / 1125

Category: Unemployment, poverty

627. What is a primary cause of unemployment?

628 / 1125

Category: Pressure on resources

628. Why is the carrying capacity of the Earth a concern for human population growth?

629 / 1125

Category: Pressure on resources

629. What is the primary reason for the rapid increase in human population in recent times?

630 / 1125

Category: Problems of Overpopulation

630. Which measure has been taken by the Indian government to control population growth?

631 / 1125

Category: Problems of Overpopulation

631. What is the primary cause of high population growth rate in India?

632 / 1125

Category: Improved medical care & nutrition

632. How has better nutrition contributed to population explosion?

633 / 1125

Category: Improved medical care & nutrition

633. Which of the following is a direct impact of improved medical care on population growth?

634 / 1125

Category: High birth rate, low mortality

634. Which method of birth control works on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperm meeting?

635 / 1125

Category: High birth rate, low mortality

635. What is the primary reason for population explosion in India?

636 / 1125

Category: Population Growth Factors

636. Which of the following is a measure adopted by the Indian government to control population growth?

637 / 1125

Category: Population Growth Factors

637. What is the main reason for the explosive growth of human population in recent times?

638 / 1125

Category: Calendar (thythm) method,

638. The calendar (rhythm) method works on the principle of:

639 / 1125

Category: Calendar (thythm) method,

639. What is the typical fertile period in a woman's menstrual cycle when using the calendar (rhythm) method to avoid pregnancy?

640 / 1125

Category: Natural C ontraceptive Methods

640. How long is the Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM) effective as a natural contraceptive after childbirth?

641 / 1125

Category: Natural C ontraceptive Methods

641. Which natural contraceptive method involves checking the stickiness of cervical mucus to determine the fertile period?

642 / 1125

Category: METHODS OF BIRTH CONTROL AND CONTRACEPTIVE DEVICES

642. Which of the following barrier contraceptives is inserted into the vagina to block sperm entry into the womb?

643 / 1125

Category: METHODS OF BIRTH CONTROL AND CONTRACEPTIVE DEVICES

643. Which natural method of contraception is based on the absence of menstruation due to intense lactation after childbirth?

644 / 1125

Category: POPULATION EXPLOSION AND BIRTH CONTROL

644. What is the primary function of an Intra-uterine Device (IUD)?

645 / 1125

Category: POPULATION EXPLOSION AND BIRTH CONTROL

645. Which natural method of contraception is based on the absence of ovulation during intense lactation after childbirth?

646 / 1125

Category: REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH—PROBLEMS AND STRATEGIES

646. A sexually active individual tests positive for Chlamydia trachomatis. Which of the following complications is MOST likely to occur if left untreated?

647 / 1125

Category: REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH—PROBLEMS AND STRATEGIES

647. A couple is considering family planning methods and wants a long-term, non-hormonal contraceptive option that can be reversed if needed. Which of the following methods would best suit their requirements?

648 / 1125

Category: REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH—PROBLEMS AND STRATEGIES

648. A couple wants to use a natural method of contraception that involves tracking the menstrual cycle to avoid intercourse during the fertile period. Which method are they most likely using?

649 / 1125

Category: REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH—PROBLEMS AND STRATEGIES

649. Which of the following Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) involves fertilizing the egg outside the body and then transferring the embryo into the uterus?

650 / 1125

Category: REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH—PROBLEMS AND STRATEGIES

650. Which method of birth control involves avoiding intercourse during the fertile period?

651 / 1125

Category: REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH—PROBLEMS AND STRATEGIES

651. Which of the following is a key aspect of reproductive health awareness?

652 / 1125

Category: Legal measures (sex determination ban, MTP regulation)

652. Which method of Medical Termination of Pregnancy involves the administration of prostaglandins intravaginally to induce uterine contractions?

653 / 1125

Category: Legal measures (sex determination ban, MTP regulation)

653. A pregnant woman is advised by a doctor to undergo an abortion due to the risk of severe physical abnormalities in the fetus at 14 weeks of pregnancy. According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, what must be done before proceeding with the termination?

654 / 1125

Category: Counselling for reproductive health

654. In a community with high prevalence of uncontrolled population growth and drug abuse, what should be the priority focus area(s) during reproductive health counselling sessions?

655 / 1125

Category: Counselling for reproductive health

655. A newly married couple seeks counselling regarding reproductive health. Which of the following aspects should be emphasized to ensure they adopt a holistic approach toward family planning and maternal well-being?

656 / 1125

Category: Maternal & child healthcare

656. In the context of maternal and child healthcare, which of the following vaccines is administered to newborns immediately after birth to protect them from a life-threatening disease?

657 / 1125

Category: Maternal & child healthcare

657. A pregnant woman in a rural area is advised to take iron and folic acid supplements during pregnancy. What is the primary reason for this recommendation?

658 / 1125

Category: Sex education

658. In a society where taboos prevent open discussion about reproductive health, which mass media strategy would be most effective for simultaneously increasing awareness about STIs and promoting gender equality in healthcare decisions?

659 / 1125

Category: Sex education

659. A comprehensive sex education program aims to address multiple aspects of reproductive health. If a student learns about the prevention of sexually transmitted infections but fails to understand the psychological impact of early pregnancies, which key objective of sex education remains unfulfilled?

660 / 1125

Category: Key Strategies

660. A community health worker is designing an awareness campaign about sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Which of the following strategies would be most effective in reducing the incidence of STIs while also addressing social stigma associated with them?

661 / 1125

Category: Key Strategies

661. A couple is seeking advice on family planning methods. They prefer a non-invasive method with no side effects and high reliability but do not want to use hormonal contraceptives or surgical interventions. Which of the following would be the most suitable option for them considering their preferences?

662 / 1125

Category: Awareness & education (schools, media, NGOs)

662. In a school-based reproductive health program, what is the PRIMARY reason for including peer-led counselling sessions alongside teacher-led lectures?

663 / 1125

Category: Awareness & education (schools, media, NGOs)

663. A government initiative aims to reduce teenage pregnancies through mass media campaigns targeting adolescents. Which of the following strategies would be LEAST effective in this context?

664 / 1125

Category: RCH (Reproductive & Child Health) initiative

664. Considering India's RCH initiatives, what would be the most effective combination of interventions to specifically target reduction in sex-selective abortions while improving overall maternal health?

665 / 1125

Category: RCH (Reproductive & Child Health) initiative

665. The RCH initiative in India employs multiple strategies to improve reproductive health. If a campaign focuses specifically on educating adolescents about safe sexual practices, preventing STIs, and addressing myths through school programs, which of these would be the most comprehensive evaluation parameter for its success?

666 / 1125

Category: Family Planning programme

666. A patient requires medical termination of pregnancy at 10 weeks gestation. Which method listed below would involve administration of prostaglandins to induce uterine contractions rather than mechanical intervention?

667 / 1125

Category: Family Planning programme

667. A couple is using lactational amenorrhea as their contraceptive method after the birth of their child. Under what condition will this method be most effective in preventing pregnancy?

668 / 1125

Category: National Programs

668. Which of the following programs specifically targets high fertility districts to enhance contraceptive access under India's national reproductive health initiatives?

669 / 1125

Category: National Programs

669. What was the primary objective behind launching the Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) Program in 1997?

670 / 1125

Category: Social responsibility

670. A school plans to introduce an educational module on reproductive health focusing on dispelling myths, promoting safe sex, and encouraging gender equality. Which key aspect of reproductive health is being prioritized in this initiative?

671 / 1125

Category: Social responsibility

671. A government program aims to improve reproductive health by providing awareness campaigns, medical facilities for prenatal care, and discouraging sex-selective abortions. Which of the following programs aligns most closely with these objectives?

672 / 1125

Category: Emotional & behavioral stability

672. An adolescent group is engaging in unprotected sexual activities, increasing their risk of STDs. What behavioral intervention strategy would be most effective in promoting responsible sexual behavior among them?

673 / 1125

Category: Emotional & behavioral stability

673. A couple facing infertility issues is experiencing emotional distress and marital conflicts due to societal pressure. Which comprehensive approach would best address their reproductive health needs while ensuring emotional stability?

674 / 1125

Category: Healthy reproductive organs

674. What is the primary objective of government-initiated Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) programs?

675 / 1125

Category: Healthy reproductive organs

675. Which of the following best describes a holistic approach to reproductive health as per WHO guidelines?

676 / 1125

Category: Importance

676. In a community with high rates of adolescent pregnancies and STIs, which combined intervention strategy would be most effective in addressing both issues?

677 / 1125

Category: Importance

677. A country aims to improve its maternal mortality rate by implementing comprehensive reproductive health programs. Which of the following initiatives would have the most significant impact on reducing maternal mortality rates?

678 / 1125

Category: Components: physical, mental, social well-being

678. In a region with high HIV prevalence, a clinic provides free condoms but faces resistance due to cultural stigma. Which reproductive health strategy would BEST address BOTH the physical and social aspects of this issue?

679 / 1125

Category: Components: physical, mental, social well-being

679. A 17-year-old girl in a conservative community is pressured into early marriage against her will, leading to anxiety and depression. Which two reproductive health components are MOST compromised in this scenario?

680 / 1125

Category: WHO definition

680. A woman with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) seeks medical advice due to infertility concerns. Which aspect of WHO's reproductive health definition is MOST directly addressed by her condition?

681 / 1125

Category: WHO definition

681. According to WHO, reproductive health includes social well-being in all aspects of reproduction. Which of the following scenarios BEST exemplifies a violation of this principle?

682 / 1125

Category: Reproductive Health — Meaning & Scope

682. In a region with high maternal mortality rates, a government program is designed to integrate family planning services with maternal healthcare. Which strategy would best align with the principles of reproductive health to ensure both safe pregnancies and informed family planning choices?

683 / 1125

Category: Reproductive Health — Meaning & Scope

683. A community health initiative aims to improve reproductive health by focusing on awareness and prevention strategies. Which multi-pronged approach would be most effective in reducing the transmission of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) while addressing social stigma and misinformation?

684 / 1125

Category: Legal measures (sex determination ban, MTP regulation)

684. According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017, what is the maximum gestational period up to which MTP can be performed with the opinion of one registered medical practitioner?

685 / 1125

Category: Legal measures (sex determination ban, MTP regulation)

685. Which of the following is a legal implication of sex determination before birth in India?

686 / 1125

Category: Counselling for reproductive health

686. What is the primary objective of family planning counselling in reproductive health?

687 / 1125

Category: Counselling for reproductive health

687. Which of the following is a key aspect covered under counselling for reproductive health as per WHO guidelines?

688 / 1125

Category: Maternal & child healthcare

688. What is the primary objective of child healthcare programs in reproductive health?

689 / 1125

Category: Maternal & child healthcare

689. Which of the following is a key component of maternal healthcare as per WHO guidelines?

690 / 1125

Category: Sex education

690. Which of the following is NOT a key aspect emphasized under reproductive health according to the syllabus?

691 / 1125

Category: Sex education

691. What is the primary goal of sex education as per the WHO's definition of reproductive health?

692 / 1125

Category: Key Strategies

692. Which of the following is a key component of maternal and child health care under reproductive health strategies?

693 / 1125

Category: Key Strategies

693. What is the primary goal of awareness and education programs in reproductive health?

694 / 1125

Category: Awareness & education (schools, media, NGOs)

694. How do NGOs contribute to improving reproductive health in rural areas?

695 / 1125

Category: Awareness & education (schools, media, NGOs)

695. Which of the following is a primary objective of conducting reproductive health awareness programs in schools?

696 / 1125

Category: RCH (Reproductive & Child Health) initiative

696. What is one of the key focuses of the RCH initiative in terms of maternal and child health?

697 / 1125

Category: RCH (Reproductive & Child Health) initiative

697. Which of the following is NOT a primary objective of the Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) programme in India?

698 / 1125

Category: Family Planning programme

698. Under the MTP Act, 1971 (amended 2017), up to how many weeks of pregnancy can be terminated based on a single doctor's opinion?

699 / 1125

Category: Family Planning programme

699. Which of the following is a non-steroidal, once-a-week contraceptive pill with minimal side effects?

700 / 1125

Category: National Programs

700. Which of the following programs specifically targets high fertility districts to improve access to contraceptives and family planning services?

701 / 1125

Category: National Programs

701. The Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) Program, launched in 1997, primarily focuses on:

702 / 1125

Category: Social responsibility

702. What is one of the primary objectives of the Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) Program in India?

703 / 1125

Category: Social responsibility

703. Which of the following is a key aspect of social responsibility in promoting reproductive health?

704 / 1125

Category: Emotional & behavioral stability

704. Which aspect ensures behavioral adaptability in reproductive health choices?

705 / 1125

Category: Emotional & behavioral stability

705. What is a key factor in maintaining emotional stability in reproductive health?

706 / 1125

Category: Healthy reproductive organs

706. Which of the following is NOT considered a key aspect of reproductive health awareness programs?

707 / 1125

Category: Healthy reproductive organs

707. According to the WHO, reproductive health includes which of the following aspects?

708 / 1125

Category: Importance

708. According to WHO, which of the following is included in the definition of reproductive health?

709 / 1125

Category: Importance

709. Which of the following is NOT a key objective of reproductive health programmes?

710 / 1125

Category: Components: physical, mental, social well-being

710. What is one of the main objectives of the Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) Programmes?

711 / 1125

Category: Components: physical, mental, social well-being

711. Which of the following is NOT a primary component of reproductive health as defined by WHO?

712 / 1125

Category: WHO definition

712. Which of the following is a key objective of the Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) Programme?

713 / 1125

Category: WHO definition

713. According to the WHO, reproductive health includes well-being in which of the following aspects?

714 / 1125

Category: Reproductive Health — Meaning & Scope

714. Which of the following is a key strategy for improving reproductive health as per governmental initiatives?

715 / 1125

Category: Reproductive Health — Meaning & Scope

715. According to the WHO, reproductive health includes which of the following aspects?

716 / 1125

Category: Legal measures (sex determination ban, MTP regulation)

716. What is the legal status of performing MTP for sex determination before birth in India?

717 / 1125

Category: Legal measures (sex determination ban, MTP regulation)

717. Under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017, up to how many weeks of pregnancy can MTP be performed with the opinion of one registered medical practitioner?

718 / 1125

Category: Counselling for reproductive health

718. Which of the following is an important aspect of counselling for reproductive health?

719 / 1125

Category: Counselling for reproductive health

719. What does reproductive health primarily refer to?

720 / 1125

Category: Maternal & child healthcare

720. Which of the following is NOT a component of reproductive health as per WHO?

721 / 1125

Category: Maternal & child healthcare

721. What is the primary goal of prenatal care in maternal healthcare?

722 / 1125

Category: Sex education

722. Why is proper sex education important for young individuals?

723 / 1125

Category: Sex education

723. According to WHO, what does reproductive health primarily include?

724 / 1125

Category: Key Strategies

724. What is a key method used to create awareness about reproductive health issues among the general public?

725 / 1125

Category: Key Strategies

725. Which programme in India aims to provide family planning services within the broader context of maternal and child healthcare?

726 / 1125

Category: Awareness & education (schools, media, NGOs)

726. Which of the following is a key focus area for NGOs working in reproductive health?

727 / 1125

Category: Awareness & education (schools, media, NGOs)

727. What is the primary objective of sex education programs in schools regarding reproductive health?

728 / 1125

Category: RCH (Reproductive & Child Health) initiative

728. Which of the following is NOT an objective of the RCH (Reproductive and Child Health) Programme?

729 / 1125

Category: RCH (Reproductive & Child Health) initiative

729. What is the primary goal of reproductive health as per WHO?

730 / 1125

Category: Family Planning programme

730. Which of the following is a natural method of contraception?

731 / 1125

Category: Family Planning programme

731. What is the primary objective of India's National Family Welfare Programme?

732 / 1125

Category: National Programs

732. What is the primary objective of the National AIDS Control Program (NACP)?

733 / 1125

Category: National Programs

733. Which national program in India focuses on reducing maternal and infant mortality rates?

734 / 1125

Category: Social responsibility

734. Which of the following is a key aspect of social responsibility in reproductive health?

735 / 1125

Category: Social responsibility

735. What is the primary goal of reproductive health education in society?

736 / 1125

Category: Emotional & behavioral stability

736. What is essential for making responsible choices about reproductive health?

737 / 1125

Category: Emotional & behavioral stability

737. Which of the following is a key aspect of maintaining emotional and behavioral stability in reproductive health?

738 / 1125

Category: Healthy reproductive organs

738. What is one of the key aspects of reproductive health programs?

739 / 1125

Category: Healthy reproductive organs

739. According to WHO, what does reproductive health imply?

740 / 1125

Category: Importance

740. Which of the following is a primary step towards achieving reproductive health?

741 / 1125

Category: Importance

741. According to the World Health Organisation (WHO), what does reproductive health primarily mean?

742 / 1125

Category: Components: physical, mental, social well-being

742. What is a key aspect of mental well-being in reproductive health?

743 / 1125

Category: Components: physical, mental, social well-being

743. Which of the following is NOT a component of physical well-being in reproductive health?

744 / 1125

Category: WHO definition

744. Which of the following is an example of a government initiative aimed at improving reproductive health in India?

745 / 1125

Category: WHO definition

745. According to the WHO, reproductive health includes which of the following aspects?

746 / 1125

Category: Reproductive Health — Meaning & Scope

746. Which of the following is NOT a key aspect of reproductive health?

747 / 1125

Category: Reproductive Health — Meaning & Scope

747. According to the World Health Organisation (WHO), what does reproductive health refer to?

748 / 1125

Category: ACQUIRED IMMUNO DEFICIENCY SYNDROME (AIDS)

748. (A) HIV primarily targets and destroys T$_4$ cells, leading to immunodeficiency in AIDS patients.
(R) T$_4$ cells are essential for coordinating the immune response by activating other immune cells such as B-cells and cytotoxic T-cells.

749 / 1125

Category: HEPATITIS-B

749. (A) Hepatitis B can lead to liver cirrhosis and cancer because the virus persists in the body for a lifetime.
(R) Hepatitis B virus has an antigen that triggers the formation of a special antibody which remains in the blood.

750 / 1125

Category: TRICHOMONIASIS

750. (A) Trichomoniasis is commonly asymptomatic in both men and women, but when symptoms appear, they are more pronounced in women than in men.
(R) The lower genital tract in women provides a more favorable environment for $Trichomonas vaginalis$ to thrive and cause noticeable symptoms compared to the urethra in men.

751 / 1125

Category: GENITAL WARTS

751. (A) Genital warts can be prevented by abstaining from skin-to-skin sexual contact and getting the HPV vaccine.
(R) The HPV vaccine protects against all 100 types of HPV that can affect different parts of the body.

752 / 1125

Category: CHLAMYDIASIS

752. (A) The risk of chlamydia transmission is higher in teenage girls compared to older women due to the immaturity of their cervix.
(R) The immature cervix provides a more favorable environment for $Chlamydia trachomatis$ to thrive and establish infection.

753 / 1125

Category: SYPHILIS

753. (A) The third stage of syphilis is characterized by the appearance of slow-growing abscesses and disorders of the cardiovascular and central nervous systems.
(R) In the third stage of syphilis, the pathogen becomes active again after a latent period and can attack any part of the body.

754 / 1125

Category: GONORRHOEA

754. (A) Gonorrhoea is caused by $Neisseria gonorrhoeae$ and can lead to infertility in both men and women if untreated.
(R) The bacteria cause severe pelvic inflammation and peritonitis by scarring the fallopian tubes in women.

755 / 1125

Category: SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASES (STDs)

755. (A) Gonorrhoea can lead to infertility in both males and females if left untreated.
(R) The bacterium $Neisseria gonorrhoeae$ causes damage to the fallopian tubes in females and can block the vas deferens in males.

756 / 1125

Category: ACQUIRED IMMUNO DEFICIENCY SYNDROME (AIDS)

756. (A) ELISA is a widely used diagnostic test for AIDS because it detects the presence of HIV antibodies in the blood.
(R) The detection of HIV antibodies indicates an active infection since these antibodies are produced only in response to the virus.

757 / 1125

Category: HEPATITIS-B

757. (A) Hepatitis B can be transmitted through contaminated syringes and transfusion equipment in hospitals.
(R) The hepatitis B virus is present in the blood and can survive outside the body for a long time.

758 / 1125

Category: TRICHOMONIASIS

758. (A) Trichomoniasis is asymptomatic in most infected individuals.
(R) The parasite Trichomonas vaginalis can still be transmitted by asymptomatic carriers.

759 / 1125

Category: GENITAL WARTS

759. (A) Genital warts are caused by human papilloma virus (HPV) types 6 and 11.
(R) HPV types 6 and 11 are responsible for 90% of all genital warts cases.

760 / 1125

Category: CHLAMYDIASIS

760. (A) Chlamydia can be transmitted from an infected mother to her baby during childbirth.
(R) The cervix of a teenage girl or younger woman is less matured, making them more susceptible to chlamydial infection.

761 / 1125

Category: SYPHILIS

761. (A) The first stage of syphilis is characterized by a painless ulcer that heals on its own within 2-4 weeks.
(R) The healing of the ulcer in the first stage indicates complete recovery from syphilis without any further treatment needed.

762 / 1125

Category: GONORRHOEA

762. (A) Gonorrhoea is always symptomatic in both males and females.
(R) The bacterium $Neisseria gonorrhoeae$ causes noticeable symptoms such as burning sensation and pus discharge within days of infection.

763 / 1125

Category: SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASES (STDs)

763. (A) Gonorrhoea can cause infertility in both males and females if left untreated.
(R) Gonorrhoea damages the fallopian tubes in females and may lead to pelvic inflammatory disease.

764 / 1125

Category: ACQUIRED IMMUNO DEFICIENCY SYNDROME (AIDS)

764. (A) AIDS can be transmitted through breast milk from an infected mother to her child.
(R) HIV can pass from mother to child during breastfeeding because the virus is present in breast milk.

765 / 1125

Category: HEPATITIS-B

765. (A) Hepatitis B can cause jaundice with dark urine and stools.
(R) Jaundice occurs due to liver dysfunction caused by the hepatitis B virus.

766 / 1125

Category: TRICHOMONIASIS

766. (A) Trichomoniasis is caused by the protozoan parasite $Trichomonas vaginalis$.
(R) The infection spreads primarily through sexual contact and can cause symptoms like genital itching and unusual discharge.

767 / 1125

Category: GENITAL WARTS

767. (A) Most genital warts are caused by HPV types 6 and 11.
(R) The HPV vaccine can protect against the two HPV types that cause 90% of all cases of genital warts.

768 / 1125

Category: CHLAMYDIASIS

768. (A) Chlamydia can be effectively treated with antibiotics like tetracycline.
(R) Antibiotics target the bacterial nature of $Chlamydia trachomatis$, thereby curing the infection.

769 / 1125

Category: SYPHILIS

769. (A) A painless, clean-based ulcer on the glans of the penis is a symptom of the first stage of syphilis.
(R) The ulcer in the first stage of syphilis usually heals within 2-4 weeks without treatment.

770 / 1125

Category: GONORRHOEA

770. (A) Gonorrhoea is caused by the bacterium $Neisseria gonorrhoeae$.
(R) $Neisseria gonorrhoeae$ can survive and multiply in the human genital tract, leading to infection.

771 / 1125

Category: SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASES (STDs)

771. (A) Gonorrhoea in males often presents symptoms like a burning sensation in the penis and yellowish discharge of pus.
(R) The bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes inflammation and pus formation in the genital tract.

772 / 1125

Category: GENETIC COUNSELLING

772. (A) Amniocentesis performed before 15 weeks of pregnancy provides reliable detection of fetal abnormalities like Down syndrome and neural tube defects.
(R) The amniotic fluid collected contains fetal cells that can be analyzed for chromosomal abnormalities and metabolic disorders.

773 / 1125

Category: GENETIC COUNSELLING

773. (A) Genetic counselling is most helpful for couples who believe there may be a risk of producing a child with a congenital disease.
(R) Amniocentesis allows the genetic counsellor to identify birth defects and advise couples accordingly.

774 / 1125

Category: GENETIC COUNSELLING

774. (A) Genetic counselling is helpful in prenatal diagnosis and family planning.
(R) It uses techniques like amniocentesis to detect chromosomal abnormalities.

775 / 1125

Category: AMNIOCENTESIS

775. (A) Amniocentesis should be performed for all pregnant women to ensure the health of the fetus.
(R) The procedure carries a minimal risk of miscarriage when performed by an expert.

776 / 1125

Category: AMNIOCENTESIS

776. (A) Amniocentesis is primarily performed to detect chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus.
(R) The procedure involves analyzing fetal cells obtained from amniotic fluid for chromosomal defects.

777 / 1125

Category: AMNIOCENTESIS

777. (A) Amniocentesis is used to detect chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus.
(R) It involves analyzing fetal cells from amniotic fluid to reconstruct the karyotype.

778 / 1125

Category: TEST-TUBE BABIES

778. (A) In surrogate motherhood, the baby has genes from both the husband and the surrogate mother.
(R) Surrogate motherhood involves introducing the husband's sperm into the womb of another woman who carries the baby to term.

779 / 1125

Category: TEST-TUBE BABIES

779. (A) In IVF, the fertilized egg is transferred to the mother's uterus at the 8- or 16-cell stage
(R) At this developmental stage, the embryo can successfully implant in the uterine wall

780 / 1125

Category: TEST-TUBE BABIES

780. (A) In vitro fertilization (IVF) is used when a woman's fallopian tubes are blocked.
(R) IVF allows fertilization to occur outside the body, bypassing the blocked fallopian tubes.

781 / 1125

Category: Womb leasing,

781. (A) Womb leasing involves the transfer of an embryo created from the biological mother's egg and father's sperm into a surrogate's womb, ensuring the baby is genetically related to both parents.
(R) The surrogate in womb leasing has no genetic contribution to the baby, making it ethically simpler than traditional surrogacy where the surrogate may be genetically related to the child.

782 / 1125

Category: Surrogate motherhood.

782. (A) In womb leasing, the baby is genetically related to both the husband and wife.
(R) Unlike surrogate motherhood, in womb leasing, the embryo is formed using the egg of the wife and sperm of the husband before being implanted into the surrogate mother's womb.

783 / 1125

Category: ICSI (Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection).

783. (A) ICSI is the preferred method of assisted reproduction in cases where the male partner has azoospermia.
(R) ICSI involves injecting a single sperm directly into the ovum, bypassing natural barriers to fertilization.

784 / 1125

Category: LUT (Intra uterine transfer).

784. (A) Intra uterine transfer (IUT) is performed when the embryo has reached the 8- or 16-cell stage because at this stage, the embryo is more likely to implant successfully in the uterus.
(R) The success of implantation in IUT depends on the embryo's developmental stage, and the 8- to 16-cell stage provides optimal conditions for uterine attachment.

785 / 1125

Category: Immunosuppressive therapy

785. (A) Immunosuppressive therapy is always the first-line treatment for couples facing infertility due to antisperm antibodies.
(R) The immune system of some women recognizes sperm as foreign invaders and produces antibodies against them, leading to infertility.

786 / 1125

Category: ZIFT (Zygote intrafallopian transfer).

786. (A) In Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer (ZIFT), the zygote is transferred to the uterus directly for implantation.
(R) The natural growth and movement of the embryo occur in the fallopian tube before reaching the uterus.

787 / 1125

Category: Surgery

787. (A) Vasectomy is a permanent method of sterilization that prevents the release of sperm in the ejaculate by cutting and tying the vas deferens.
(R) The procedure does not affect testosterone production or sexual function since the testes continue to produce hormones and semen.

788 / 1125

Category: GIFT (Gamete intrafallopian transfer).

788. (A) GIFT involves the transfer of fertilized embryos into the fallopian tube.
(R) GIFT requires at least one healthy fallopian tube for successful fertilization and implantation.

789 / 1125

Category: Hormonal therapy

789. (A) Hormonal therapy using estrogen and progestogen is effective in treating infertility caused by irregular ovulation.
(R) Estrogen stimulates the ovaries to produce eggs while progestogen maintains the uterine lining for implantation.

790 / 1125

Category: In vitro fertilization (IVF).

790. , Embryo freezing, Surrogate motherhood) (A) In IVF, the fertilized egg is returned to the mother's womb at the 8-or 16-cell stage because the uterine lining is most receptive at this stage of development.
(R) The uterine lining undergoes cyclic changes during the menstrual cycle, with optimal conditions for implantation occurring around the time when the embryo reaches the 8-or 16-cell stage.

791 / 1125

Category: Remedies

791. (A) In vitro fertilization (IVF) is primarily used for couples where both partners produce normal gametes but have a blockage preventing fertilization.
(R) IVF involves fertilizing the egg outside the body in a controlled environment, bypassing natural barriers like blocked fallopian tubes.

792 / 1125

Category: Artificial insemination.

792. (A) Artificial insemination (AI) has a higher success rate when the female partner uses fertility drugs to stimulate ovulation.
(R) Fertility drugs increase the number of eggs available for fertilization, thereby improving the chances of successful conception through AI.

793 / 1125

Category: Medical history, semen analysis, imaging

793. (A) Azoospermia detected in semen analysis always indicates a complete blockage in the male reproductive tract.
(R) In cases of obstructive azoospermia, testosterone levels are typically normal or elevated due to intact Leydig cell function.

794 / 1125

Category: Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART)

794. (A) Embryo freezing allows for long-term preservation of embryos by maintaining them at $-200^\circ C$ to halt all biological activity.
(R) At $-200^\circ C$, metabolic processes in the embryo are completely stopped, preventing cellular damage over time.

795 / 1125

Category: Diagnosis

795. (A) A semen analysis revealing oligospermia confirms male infertility conclusively.

(R) Oligospermia indicates reduced sperm count, but other factors like motility and morphology must also be evaluated for a complete diagnosis.

796 / 1125

Category: Finding a Remedy

796. (A) Artificial insemination (AI) is always performed by introducing semen directly into the uterus (IUI) for fertilization.
(R) Intra-uterine insemination (IUI) bypasses potential hostile cervical mucus and increases the chances of sperm reaching the egg.

797 / 1125

Category: Hostile uterus/cervical mucus

797. (A) Infertility due to hostile cervical mucus can be treated effectively by using intrauterine insemination (IUI).
(R) IUI bypasses the cervical mucus barrier by directly placing sperm into the uterus, avoiding exposure to antibodies in the cervical mucus.

798 / 1125

Category: Finding the Cause

798. (A) A man diagnosed with oligospermia is unable to father a child due to insufficient sperm count in his semen.
(R) Oligospermia results from excessive production of gonadotropins, which inhibit sperm development in the testes.

799 / 1125

Category: Blockage in ducts

799. (A) A male patient diagnosed with azoospermia due to blockage in the vas deferens can still father a child through natural conception if the blockage is surgically corrected.
(R) Surgical correction of vas deferens blockage restores the normal pathway for sperm transport, enabling fertilization to occur naturally.

800 / 1125

Category: Poor ovulation / ovarian defects

800. (A) Gonadotrophin injections can lead to multiple pregnancies in women undergoing infertility treatment due to poor ovulation.
(R) Gonadotrophins stimulate the development of multiple follicles in the ovaries, increasing the likelihood of releasing more than one egg during ovulation.

801 / 1125

Category: Poor sperm production / motility

801. (A) Damage to sperm-producing cells leads to oligospermia or azoospermia but does not directly cause asthenozoospermia.
(R) Asthenozoospermia is caused by poor motility of sperm and is unrelated to the quantity of sperm produced.

802 / 1125

Category: Causes

802. (A) Azoospermia is a condition where no sperm is produced in the testes.
(R) This occurs due to complete blockage of the vas deferens preventing sperm release.

803 / 1125

Category: Infertility

803. (A) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is used when there is a blockage between the sperm and egg in the female reproductive tract.
(R) ICSI involves directly injecting a single sperm into an ovum to facilitate fertilization outside the body.

804 / 1125

Category: Womb leasing,

804. (A) In womb leasing, the baby is genetically related to both the husband and wife.
(R) The embryo in womb leasing is formed using the biological parents' gametes, not the surrogate's.

805 / 1125

Category: Surrogate motherhood.

805. (A) In traditional surrogacy, the surrogate mother provides both the egg and carries the pregnancy.
(R) The child born through traditional surrogacy shares a genetic link with the surrogate mother.

806 / 1125

Category: ICSI (Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection).

806. (A) ICSI is used when the male partner has severe sperm-related issues such as low sperm count or poor motility.
(R) In ICSI, a single sperm is directly injected into the ovum to bypass natural fertilization barriers.

807 / 1125

Category: LUT (Intra uterine transfer).

807. (A) Intra Uterine Transfer (IUT) is only used when the woman has blocked or damaged fallopian tubes.
(R) IUT involves transferring embryos into the uterus to bypass tubal blockages.

808 / 1125

Category: Immunosuppressive therapy

808. (A) Immunosuppressive therapy is used to treat infertility caused by the woman's immune system attacking sperm.

(R) The therapy works by suppressing antibody production against sperm, increasing the chances of fertilization.

809 / 1125

Category: ZIFT (Zygote intrafallopian transfer).

809. (A) In Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer (ZIFT), fertilization occurs in the fallopian tube of the woman.
(R) ZIFT involves transferring a fertilized zygote or early embryo into the fallopian tube for natural growth and movement to the uterus.

810 / 1125

Category: Surgery

810. (A) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is a technique where a single sperm is directly injected into the ovum to overcome male infertility issues.
(R) In IVF, the sperm and egg are mixed outside the body but fertilization may fail due to poor sperm motility or low sperm count.

811 / 1125

Category: GIFT (Gamete intrafallopian transfer).

811. (A) GIFT is suitable for couples where the woman produces eggs normally but has blocked fallopian tubes.
(R) In GIFT, fertilization occurs naturally inside the fallopian tube.

812 / 1125

Category: Hormonal therapy

812. (A) Hormonal therapy is always the first-line treatment for all types of infertility.
(R) Hormonal imbalances are the primary cause of infertility in both men and women.

813 / 1125

Category: In vitro fertilization (IVF).

813. technique) (A) In IVF, the fertilized egg is transferred back into the mother's uterus at the 8-or 16-cell stage.
(R) The lining of the woman's womb is ready to receive the fertilized egg only at this stage of development.

814 / 1125

Category: Remedies

814. (A) Testosterone injections can improve sperm production in men with infertility issues.
(R) Testosterone is a male sex hormone that stimulates the testes to produce sperm.

815 / 1125

Category: Artificial insemination.

815. (A) Intra-uterine insemination (IUI) is a type of artificial insemination where semen is directly placed into the uterus using a syringe.
(R) Placing semen directly into the uterus increases the chances of conception by bypassing potential hostile cervical mucus.

816 / 1125

Category: Medical history, semen analysis, imaging

816. (A) Semen analysis is a critical diagnostic tool for male infertility.
(R) It evaluates sperm count, motility, and morphology to assess fertility potential.

817 / 1125

Category: Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART)

817. (A) In vitro fertilization (IVF) is a suitable treatment for couples where the woman has blocked fallopian tubes.
(R) IVF involves fertilizing the egg outside the body and then transferring the embryo into the uterus, bypassing the need for functional fallopian tubes.

818 / 1125

Category: Diagnosis

818. (A) A semen analysis showing low sperm motility can be a primary cause of male infertility.
(R) Sperm motility is essential for the sperm to travel through the female reproductive tract and fertilize the egg.

819 / 1125

Category: Finding a Remedy

819. (A) Artificial insemination is used when the fallopian tubes are blocked.
(R) In artificial insemination, semen is introduced directly into the uterus to bypass the blockage.

820 / 1125

Category: Hostile uterus/cervical mucus

820. (A) A hostile cervical mucus condition can hinder sperm motility and survival.
(R) This occurs primarily due to insufficient estrogen levels leading to thick and tenacious mucus.

821 / 1125

Category: Finding the Cause

821. (A) Azoospermia can be caused by blockage of the vas deferens due to infection.
(R) The vas deferens is responsible for transporting sperm from the testes to the seminal vesicles, and its blockage prevents sperm from being present in the semen.

822 / 1125

Category: Blockage in ducts

822. (A) Blockage in the fallopian tubes can prevent fertilization even if sperm reach the tubes due to past infections or inflammation.
(R) Infections can damage the lining of the fallopian tubes, preventing the fertilized egg from being propelled to the womb.

823 / 1125

Category: Poor ovulation / ovarian defects

823. (A) Poor ovulation can occur even if the pituitary gland releases normal levels of gonadotrophins.

(R) The ovaries may not contain any ova or the ova may atrophy early, leading to poor egg production.

824 / 1125

Category: Poor sperm production / motility

824. (A) Cryptorchidism can lead to poor sperm production.
(R) Undescended testes are exposed to higher intra-abdominal temperatures, which impair spermatogenesis.

825 / 1125

Category: Causes

825. (A) Azoospermia is a condition where no sperm cells are produced in the testes.
(R) Cryptorchidism can lead to poor sperm production due to undescended testes.

826 / 1125

Category: Infertility

826. (A) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is a technique where a single sperm is directly injected into the ovum to overcome male infertility issues such as $oligospermia$ or $asthenozoospermia$.
(R) ICSI bypasses the need for sperm motility and natural fertilization by manually injecting a healthy sperm into the egg.

827 / 1125

Category: Womb leasing,

827. (A) In womb leasing, the baby is genetically related to both the biological parents.
(R) The embryo is created using the egg and sperm of the biological parents and implanted in another woman's womb.

828 / 1125

Category: Surrogate motherhood.

828. (A) In surrogate motherhood, the baby has genes from the husband but not the wife.
(R) The sperm of the husband is used to fertilize the egg of another woman, who carries the pregnancy.

829 / 1125

Category: ICSI (Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection).

829. (A) In ICSI, a single sperm is directly injected into the ovum.
(R) This technique is useful when sperm motility is poor.

830 / 1125

Category: LUT (Intra uterine transfer).

830. (A) In LUT, embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus.
(R) Embryos formed by in vivo fertilization can be used for LUT.

831 / 1125

Category: Immunosuppressive therapy

831. (A) Immunosuppressive therapy can be used to treat infertility caused by the immune system attacking sperm.
(R) Immunosuppressive drugs reduce the production of antibodies against sperm, allowing fertilization to occur.

832 / 1125

Category: ZIFT (Zygote intrafallopian transfer).

832. (A) In ZIFT, fertilization occurs in the laboratory before transferring the zygote or early embryo to the fallopian tube.
(R) This is because natural fertilization might not occur successfully in the fallopian tube for some couples.

833 / 1125

Category: Surgery

833. (A) Vasectomy reversal can restore fertility in males who have previously undergone vasectomy.
(R) Vasovasostomy reconnects the vas deferens, allowing sperm to be ejaculated again.

834 / 1125

Category: GIFT (Gamete intrafallopian transfer).

834. (A) GIFT involves the transfer of fertilized eggs into the fallopian tube.
(R) Fertilization in GIFT occurs naturally inside the woman’s body, unlike IVF.

835 / 1125

Category: Hormonal therapy

835. (A) Hormonal therapy can be used to regulate ovulation in females and improve fertility.
(R) Progestogens, alone or combined with estrogen, help in regulating the menstrual cycle and promoting ovulation.

836 / 1125

Category: In vitro fertilization (IVF).

836. (A) In vitro fertilization (IVF) involves fertilizing an egg outside the woman's body.
(R) IVF is used when there is a blockage in the fallopian tubes preventing natural fertilization.

837 / 1125

Category: Remedies

837. (A) Testosterone injections can improve sperm production in men with infertility issues.
(R) Testosterone is a male sex hormone that stimulates the testes to produce sperm.

838 / 1125

Category: Artificial insemination.

838. (A) Artificial insemination involves the introduction of semen into the female reproductive tract using medical procedures.
(R) The purpose of artificial insemination is to bypass natural intercourse while achieving fertilization.

839 / 1125

Category: Medical history, semen analysis, imaging

839. (A) Semen analysis is a crucial test for diagnosing male infertility.
(R) Semen analysis evaluates sperm count, motility, and morphology to determine fertility potential.

840 / 1125

Category: Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART)

840. (A) In vitro fertilization (IVF) involves fertilizing the egg outside the woman's body in a laboratory setting.
(R) IVF is used when there is a blockage in the fallopian tubes preventing the sperm from reaching the egg naturally.

841 / 1125

Category: Diagnosis

841. (A) Semen analysis is used in the diagnosis of male infertility.
(R) Semen analysis measures sperm count, motility, and morphology which are indicators of male fertility.

842 / 1125

Category: Finding a Remedy

842. (A) Injections of testosterone can stimulate sperm production in men with poor sperm production.
(R) Testosterone is a male sex hormone that directly increases sperm count by lowering the temperature of the testes.

843 / 1125

Category: Hostile uterus/cervical mucus

843. (A) Thick cervical mucus can hinder sperm motility and lead to infertility.
(R) Hormonal imbalances, particularly insufficient estrogen, can cause the cervical mucus to become thick and acidic.

844 / 1125

Category: Finding the Cause

844. (A) Azoospermia is a condition where no sperm cells are produced in the male reproductive system.
(R) Azoospermia can result from blockage of the tubes between the testes and seminal vesicles or damage to sperm-producing cells.

845 / 1125

Category: Blockage in ducts

845. (A) Blockage in the fallopian tubes can prevent fertilization from occurring.
(R) The fallopian tubes are the site where sperm meets the egg for fertilization.

846 / 1125

Category: Poor ovulation / ovarian defects

846. (A) Poor egg production can lead to infertility in females.
(R) The pituitary gland releases insufficient gonadotropins, preventing egg maturation.

847 / 1125

Category: Poor sperm production / motility

847. (A) Undescended testes (cryptorchidism) can lead to poor sperm production.
(R) Cryptorchidism increases scrotal temperature, which impairs sperm production.

848 / 1125

Category: Causes

848. (A) Cryptorchidism can cause male infertility.
(R) Cryptorchidism leads to poor sperm production due to high scrotal temperature.

849 / 1125

Category: Infertility

849. (A) Poor sperm production can lead to infertility in males.
(R) Azoospermia is a condition where no sperms are produced due to damage to the cells making sperm.

850 / 1125

Category: INEQUALITY OF SEXES

850. (A) The biological role of females in reproduction makes them superior to males in terms of species continuity.
(R) Females produce the ovum which carries only the X chromosome, while males produce sperm that can carry either an X or Y chromosome.

851 / 1125

Category: INEQUALITY OF SEXES

851. (A) The sex of the child is determined by the mother.
(R) The mother produces only one type of gamete (X chromosome), while the father produces two types of gametes (X or Y chromosome).

852 / 1125

Category: INEQUALITY OF SEXES

852. (A) The father determines the sex of the child biologically because sperm can carry either an X or Y chromosome.
(R) In humans, the male gamete (sperm) carries either an X or Y chromosome, while the female gamete (ovum) always carries an X chromosome.

853 / 1125

Category: Social inequality awareness

853. (A) The father is biologically responsible for determining the sex of a child because he contributes either an X or Y chromosome.
(R) Females are biologically superior to males as they exclusively nourish and sustain the offspring from conception until independence.

854 / 1125

Category: Sex determination ban

854. (A) The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 allows termination of pregnancy based on sex determination if the foetus is female.
(R) Amniocentesis can be misused to determine the sex of the foetus and terminate it if female, which is illegal under Indian law.

855 / 1125

Category: Sex Ratio & Female Foeticide

855. (A) The sex of a child is determined by the mother because she provides the X chromosome to all offspring.
(R) In humans, the male gamete can carry either an X or Y chromosome, which determines the sex of the offspring.

856 / 1125

Category: Social inequality awareness

856. (A) The sex of a child is determined by the father's sperm.
(R) Males produce sperms with either X or Y chromosome, while females produce only X chromosomes.

857 / 1125

Category: Sex determination ban

857. (A) The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017, strictly prohibits sex-selective abortions.
(R) Female foeticide leads to an imbalanced sex ratio and societal issues.

858 / 1125

Category: Sex Ratio & Female Foeticide

858. (A) The father determines the sex of the child biologically.
(R) Spermatozoa carry either the X or Y chromosome, which decides the sex of the offspring.

859 / 1125

Category: Social inequality awareness

859. (A) The sex of a child is determined by the mother.
(R) Female gametes carry only the X chromosome, while male gametes can carry either X or Y chromosome.

860 / 1125

Category: Sex determination ban

860. (A) The sex of the child is determined by the father because sperm can carry either X or Y chromosome.
(R) Females always produce gametes with X chromosomes, while males produce gametes with either X or Y chromosomes.

861 / 1125

Category: Sex Ratio & Female Foeticide

861. (A) The father determines the sex of the child biologically.
(R) Males produce spermatozoa with either an X or Y chromosome in a 50:50 ratio.

862 / 1125

Category: MTP Act (1971 & amendment)

862. (A) According to the MTP Act (amended in 2017), the upper limit for termination of pregnancy is extended to 24 weeks only for married women who have experienced contraceptive failure.

(R) The amendment aims to provide safe abortion access to vulnerable groups such as rape survivors, minors, and women with disabilities, irrespective of their marital status.

863 / 1125

Category: Legal Aspect

863. (A) Under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017, termination of pregnancy between 12 to 24 weeks requires the opinion of only one registered medical practitioner.
(R) The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 was enacted to ensure safer abortion practices by reducing the risk of illegal abortions.

864 / 1125

Category: Prostaglandins

864. (A) Prostaglandins like $PGE$ and $PGF$ are used in MTP because they inhibit uterine contractions.

(R) The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 allows termination up to 24 weeks only if two registered medical practitioners approve it.

865 / 1125

Category: Vacuum aspiration

865. (A) Vacuum aspiration is the preferred method for terminating pregnancies beyond 12 weeks due to its high success rate and minimal complications.
(R) The procedure involves gentle suction to evacuate pregnancy tissue, making it safer than dilatation and curettage (D&C).

866 / 1125

Category: Dilatation & curettage (D&C)

866. (A) According to the MTP Act amendments, termination of pregnancy beyond 12 weeks requires the opinion of two registered medical practitioners only if the pregnancy poses a risk to the mother's life.
(R) The MTP Act (Amendment), 2017, mandates that for pregnancies between 12-24 weeks, two registered medical practitioners must confirm substantial risk to the mother or fetal abnormalities for termination.

867 / 1125

Category: Methods

867. (A) Medical termination of pregnancy can be safely performed up to 20 weeks of gestation under the supervision of a registered medical practitioner.
(R) After 20 weeks, the risk of complications such as hemorrhage or infection increases significantly.

868 / 1125

Category: Rape cases

868. (A) MTP is legally permitted up to 20 weeks of pregnancy in rape cases under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971.
(R) The continuation of pregnancy in rape cases poses severe psychological and physical risks to the victim, justifying legal provisions for MTP.

869 / 1125

Category: Health risk to mother or fetus

869. (A) Prostaglandins like $PGE_2$ and $PGF_{2\alpha}$ are used in MTP because they increase uterine contractions.
(R) Uterine contractions induced by prostaglandins help expel the implanted ovum during early-stage pregnancy.

870 / 1125

Category: Contraceptive failure

870. (A) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) can be performed up to 20 weeks under specific conditions including contraceptive failure.
(R) The MTP (Amendment) Act, 1971 allows termination beyond 12 weeks only if the pregnancy poses a risk to the mother's life or in cases of fetal abnormalities.

871 / 1125

Category: Indications

871. (A) Under the MTP Act, 2017, a pregnancy can be terminated up to 24 weeks if there is a substantial risk that the child, if born, would suffer from severe physical or mental abnormalities.
(R) The MTP Act, 2017 mandates the opinion of two registered medical practitioners for termination between 12 to 24 weeks due to the increased complexity and ethical considerations involved.

872 / 1125

Category: Terminating pregnancy before full term

872. , Ethical and Legal Considerations) (A) MTP can legally be performed up to 12 weeks of pregnancy only if the pregnancy is likely to result in the birth of a congenitally malformed child or if continuing the pregnancy poses a risk to the mother's health.
(R) The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 1971 explicitly states that MTP for sex determination before birth is illegal.

873 / 1125

Category: Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)

873. (A) The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act permits MTP up to 24 weeks under specific circumstances involving risks to the mother or fetus.
(R) Second trimester abortions are significantly riskier than first trimester abortions due to higher chances of complications like hemorrhage and infection.

874 / 1125

Category: MTP Act (1971 & amendment)

874. (A) Under the MTP Amendment Act (2017), a pregnancy between 12-24 weeks can be terminated based on the opinion of two registered medical practitioners.
(R) The amendment aims to ensure safer abortion procedures by requiring multiple medical opinions for later-stage pregnancies.

875 / 1125

Category: Legal Aspect

875. (A) Under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017, termination between 12 to 24 weeks requires the opinion of only one registered medical practitioner.
(R) The amendment was made to simplify the procedure and reduce maternal mortality by making abortion more accessible.

876 / 1125

Category: Prostaglandins

876. (A) Prostaglandins like $PGE$ and $PGF_{2\alpha}$ are used for medical termination of pregnancy (MTP).

(R) These prostaglandins stimulate uterine contractions, leading to the expulsion of the fetus.

877 / 1125

Category: Vacuum aspiration

877. (A) Vacuum aspiration is a safe and effective method for terminating first trimester pregnancy as per the MTP Act.
(R) The procedure involves the use of a suction device to remove the contents of the uterus under medical supervision.

878 / 1125

Category: Dilatation & curettage (D&C)

878. (A) Dilatation and Curettage (D&C) is the preferred method for terminating pregnancies beyond 12 weeks.
(R) D&C involves mechanical dilation of the cervix, which becomes more challenging as pregnancy progresses beyond the first trimester.

879 / 1125

Category: Methods

879. (A) Vacuum aspiration is commonly used for first-trimester abortions.

(R) It is safe, quick, and causes minimal trauma to the uterus.

880 / 1125

Category: Rape cases

880. (A) MTP is legally permitted in cases of rape to terminate the unwanted pregnancy resulting from sexual assault.
(R) The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 allows termination up to 20 weeks, especially in cases where the pregnancy is a result of rape.

881 / 1125

Category: Health risk to mother or fetus

881. (A) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during the second trimester is riskier than in the first trimester.
(R) The uterine wall becomes thinner and more vascularized as pregnancy progresses, increasing the chances of complications.

882 / 1125

Category: Contraceptive failure

882. (A) Under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 1971, MTP is permitted in cases of contraceptive failure up to 12 weeks of pregnancy.
(R) Contraceptive failure may occur due to incorrect usage or failure of contraceptive methods like condoms or oral pills.

883 / 1125

Category: Indications

883. (A) Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) can be performed up to 12 weeks if the pregnancy is likely to result in the birth of a congenitally malformed child.
(R) The MTP (Amendment) Act, 1971 allows termination up to 12 weeks for pregnancies with congenital anomalies to prevent severe physical or mental abnormalities in the child.

884 / 1125

Category: Terminating pregnancy before full term

884. (A) In India, MTP can be legally performed up to 24 weeks of pregnancy under all circumstances.
(R) The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 1971 restricts MTP to 20 weeks unless specific conditions like risk to the mother's life or fetal abnormalities are met.

885 / 1125

Category: Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)

885. (A) According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017, a pregnancy can be terminated within the first 12 weeks based on the opinion of one registered medical practitioner.
(R) The amendment aims to reduce illegal abortions and associated maternal mortality by making MTP more accessible.

886 / 1125

Category: MTP Act (1971 & amendment)

886. (A) MTP is legally permitted up to 20 weeks of pregnancy without any conditions as per the MTP Act, 1971.
(R) The MTP Act, 1971 allows abortion only under specific conditions like risk to mother's life or foetal abnormalities.

887 / 1125

Category: Legal Aspect

887. (A) The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 allows for MTP up to 20 weeks only if the pregnancy poses a risk to the mother's mental health or there is a substantial risk of congenital abnormalities in the child.
(R) The Act ensures that abortions are conducted based on medical grounds rather than personal preferences, thereby protecting women's rights and health.

888 / 1125

Category: Prostaglandins

888. (A) Prostaglandins like $PGE_1$ and $PGF_{2\alpha}$ are used in Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP).
(R) These prostaglandins increase uterine contractions, leading to expulsion of the embryo.

889 / 1125

Category: Vacuum aspiration

889. (A) Vacuum aspiration is a safe and effective method for terminating first-trimester pregnancies.
(R) The procedure involves inserting a thin, flexible tube into the uterus and applying gentle suction to remove pregnancy tissue.

890 / 1125

Category: Dilatation & curettage (D&C)

890. (A) Dilatation and Curettage (D&C) is a procedure commonly used for terminating pregnancies in the first trimester.
(R) D&C involves widening the cervix and removing the uterine lining with a curette, making it effective for early-stage pregnancy termination.

891 / 1125

Category: Methods

891. (A) Medical methods like mifepristone are used for early termination of pregnancy.

(R) These methods are non-invasive and avoid surgical procedures.

892 / 1125

Category: Rape cases

892. (A) MTP is legally permitted in rape cases as per the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971.
(R) Continuation of pregnancy due to rape can cause psychological and physical trauma to the victim.

893 / 1125

Category: Health risk to mother or fetus

893. ) (A) MTP is relatively safer during the first trimester compared to the second trimester.
(R) The risk to the mother and fetus increases as the pregnancy progresses beyond 12 weeks.

894 / 1125

Category: Contraceptive failure

894. (A) Under the MTP Act, pregnancy can be terminated up to 20 weeks in cases of contraceptive failure.
(R) The MTP Act allows termination beyond 12 weeks only if the pregnancy poses a risk to the mother or results in a congenitally malformed child.

895 / 1125

Category: Indications

895. (A) MTP can be performed up to 12 weeks of pregnancy with the opinion of one registered medical practitioner.
(R) The MTP Act allows termination in the first trimester if there is a risk to the life or physical/mental health of the pregnant woman.

896 / 1125

Category: Terminating pregnancy before full term

896. (A) MTP is relatively safe during the first trimester of pregnancy.
(R) The uterine wall is thinner and complications are minimal in the first trimester.

897 / 1125

Category: Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)

897. ) (A) MTP is relatively safe during the first trimester up to 12 weeks of pregnancy.
(R) Second trimester abortions are much more riskier.

898 / 1125

Category: Hormonal dose (within 72 hours)

898. (A) Emergency hormonal contraception (EHC) containing progestogen and levonorgestrel is effective only when taken within 72 hours after unprotected intercourse.
(R) The effectiveness of EHC decreases over time due to the diminishing ability of progestogen to prevent ovulation or implantation beyond 72 hours.

899 / 1125

Category: Morning-after pill

899. (A) The morning-after pill can prevent pregnancy even if taken 96 hours after unprotected intercourse.
(R) The effectiveness of the morning-after pill decreases significantly after 72 hours due to reduced hormonal inhibition on ovulation and implantation.

900 / 1125

Category: Emergency Contraception

900. (A) Emergency hormonal contraception (EHC) is most effective when taken immediately after unprotected intercourse because its mechanism involves inhibiting ovulation.
(R) The efficacy of EHC decreases significantly beyond 24 hours post-intercourse due to the rapid decline in its ability to prevent fertilization.

901 / 1125

Category: Tubectomy / tubal ligation — female

901. (A) Tubal ligation causes hormonal imbalances in women leading to changes in emotional feelings.
(R) Tubal ligation blocks the transport of eggs but does not affect hormone production or emotional state.

902 / 1125

Category: Vasectomy — male

902. (A) Vasectomy leads to a complete absence of semen during ejaculation.
(R) The vas deferens carries both sperms and seminal fluid.

903 / 1125

Category: Surgical Methods (Sterilization)

903. (A) Reversal of vasectomy is always successful in restoring fertility in males.
(R) The success of sterilization reversal depends on the surgical technique and the time elapsed since the original procedure.

904 / 1125

Category: Inhibit implantation

904. (A) Hormone-releasing IUDs like LNG-20 prevent pregnancy by inhibiting ovulation in all cases.
(R) Hormonal IUDs alter the uterine lining and cervical mucus to prevent implantation and sperm entry.

905 / 1125

Category: Thicken cervical mucus

905. (A) Hormonal contraceptives containing progestin thicken cervical mucus to prevent sperm entry.
(R) Thickened cervical mucus forms a physical barrier that inhibits sperm motility and penetration.

906 / 1125

Category: Prevent ovulation

906. (A) The combined pill containing estrogen and progestogen is an effective method of emergency contraception.
(R) Emergency contraceptives like the combined pill prevent pregnancy by inhibiting ovulation and altering the uterine lining to prevent implantation.

907 / 1125

Category: Mechanism:

907. (A) The temperature method of natural contraception is highly reliable because it precisely predicts ovulation based on a consistent temperature rise.
(R) A woman's basal body temperature rises by $0.5^\circ C$ after ovulation due to increased progesterone levels, making it an accurate indicator of fertility.

908 / 1125

Category: Injections & implants

908. (A) Injectable contraceptives and implants primarily prevent pregnancy by inhibiting ovulation alone.
(R) The thickening of cervical mucus and alteration of the uterine lining are secondary mechanisms that further enhance their contraceptive efficacy.

909 / 1125

Category: Saheli (non-steroidal pill, weekly)

909. (A) Saheli is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill that prevents pregnancy by inhibiting ovulation.
(R) Saheli contains centchroman, which alters the uterine endometrium to prevent implantation of the fertilized egg.

910 / 1125

Category: Mini pill (progesterone only)

910. (A) The mini pill (progesterone-only pill) is less effective than the combined pill because it does not suppress ovulation.
(R) The mini pill primarily works by thickening cervical mucus and altering the uterine lining to prevent implantation.

911 / 1125

Category: Oral pills: combined pill (estrogen + progesterone)

911. (A) The combined pill prevents ovulation and makes the cervical mucus hostile to sperm.
(R) The estrogen in the combined pill inhibits FSH secretion, which prevents follicular development and ovulation.

912 / 1125

Category: Hormonal Methods

912. (A) Hormone-releasing IUDs are more effective than combined oral contraceptive pills because they prevent ovulation.
(R) The primary mechanism of hormone-releasing IUDs is to thicken cervical mucus and alter the uterine lining, making it unsuitable for implantation.

913 / 1125

Category: Increase phagocytosis of sperm

913. (A) Increasing phagocytosis of sperm in the female reproductive tract can act as a natural contraceptive method.
(R) Phagocytosis involves the engulfment and destruction of sperm by immune cells, reducing the chances of fertilization.

914 / 1125

Category: Prevent fertilization & implantation

914. (A) Copper-releasing IUDs prevent fertilization by suppressing sperm motility and their fertilizing capacity through the release of copper ions.
(R) Hormone-releasing IUDs alter the uterine lining to make it unsuitable for implantation and create a hostile cervical environment for sperms.

915 / 1125

Category: Mechanism:

915. (A) The lactational amenorrhea method is highly effective for contraception beyond six months postpartum.
(R) Intense lactation suppresses the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), preventing ovulation.

916 / 1125

Category: Hormone-releasing: LNG-20, Progestasert

916. (A) Hormone-releasing IUDs like LNG-20 and Progestasert make the cervix hostile to sperms by altering its mucus properties.
(R) The progestin released by these IUDs thickens the cervical mucus, preventing sperm penetration and motility.

917 / 1125

Category: Copper-T types: CuT, Cu-7, Multiload-375

917. (A) Copper-releasing IUDs like CuT and Multiload-375 are more effective than non-medicated IUDs because they release copper ions that suppress sperm motility.
(R) The copper ions released by these IUDs increase the phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and reduce their fertilizing capacity.

918 / 1125

Category: Non-medicated: Lippes Loop

918. (A) The Lippes loop prevents pregnancy primarily by releasing copper ions to suppress sperm motility.
(R) Copper-releasing IUDs like CuT work by suppressing sperm motility, whereas non-medicated IUDs like Lippes loop cause a local inflammatory response.

919 / 1125

Category: Intrauterine Devices (IUD/IUCD)

919. (A) Copper-releasing IUDs like CuT-380A prevent pregnancy primarily by inhibiting sperm motility and fertilizing capacity through the release of copper ions.
(R) The copper ions released by these IUDs create a hostile uterine environment by increasing phagocytosis of sperms and altering cervical mucus viscosity.

920 / 1125

Category: Spermicidal foams/jellies

920. (A) Spermicidal foams/jellies are highly effective as standalone contraceptives due to their ability to immobilize sperm chemically.
(R) The efficacy of spermicidal agents increases when used in combination with other barrier methods like condoms or diaphragms.

921 / 1125

Category: Diaphragm, cervical cap

921. (A) A cervical cap is more effective than a diaphragm in preventing pregnancy because it covers the cervix more snugly.
(R) A cervical cap has a smaller surface area of contact with vaginal fluids compared to a diaphragm, reducing the chances of sperm bypassing the barrier.

922 / 1125

Category: Female condom (Femidom)

922. (A) The female condom (Femidom) is less likely to tear during intercourse compared to the male condom due to its polyurethane material.
(R) Polyurethane provides both durability and flexibility, making the female condom more resistant to tearing.

923 / 1125

Category: Male condom (Nirodh)

923. (A) The effectiveness of a male condom in preventing pregnancy is solely dependent on the quality of the condom material.
(R) Proper usage, including correct application and avoiding reuse, significantly impacts the condom's effectiveness.

924 / 1125

Category: Barrier Methods

924. (A) Female condoms are less prone to tearing compared to male condoms due to their thicker material.
(R) Polyurethane used in female condoms is more durable than latex used in male condoms.

925 / 1125

Category: Post-coital douching (less effective)

925. (A) Post-coital douching is considered a highly effective method of contraception.
(R) Sperm can enter the cervix within seconds of ejaculation, making it difficult to flush them out by douching.

926 / 1125

Category: Coitus interruptus

926. (A) Coitus interruptus is a highly reliable contraceptive method due to its simplicity and no requirement of external devices.
(R) Pre-ejaculatory fluid does not contain any sperm, eliminating the risk of unintended pregnancy.

927 / 1125

Category: Lactational amenorrhea

927. (A) The lactational amenorrhea method (LAM) is 100% effective in preventing pregnancy as long as the mother breastfeeds exclusively.
(R) Lactational amenorrhea suppresses ovulation due to high levels of prolactin and other hormones that inhibit the menstrual cycle.

928 / 1125

Category: Cervical mucus method

928. (A) The cervical mucus method is highly reliable for predicting ovulation because it solely depends on observing changes in mucus consistency.

(R) Stress and other external factors can significantly alter cervical mucus consistency, making it difficult to accurately determine the fertile period.

929 / 1125

Category: Temperature method

929. (A) In the temperature method of family planning, the fertile window is identified when basal body temperature (BBT) shows a sustained rise of approximately 0.5°F.
(R) The rise in BBT during ovulation occurs due to increased progesterone levels, which thermogenically elevate body temperature.

930 / 1125

Category: Calendar method

930. (A) A woman with menstrual cycles ranging from 28 to 35 days will have her fertile window calculated as the 10th to the 24th day of the cycle.
(R) The fertile window is determined by subtracting 18 from the shortest cycle and 11 from the longest cycle.

931 / 1125

Category: Periodic abstinence

931. (A) The lactational amenorrhea method is highly effective for contraception beyond six months post-partum.
(R) Intense breastfeeding suppresses ovulation indefinitely by maintaining high prolactin levels.

932 / 1125

Category: Natural Methods

932. (A) The temperature method of natural contraception is highly reliable because it accounts for all physiological factors affecting basal body temperature.
(R) Stress and illness can cause fluctuations in basal body temperature, making the temperature method less accurate.

933 / 1125

Category: Minimal side-effects

933. (A) Saheli, the 'once a week' pill, is preferred over combined pills due to its lower side-effects and non-steroidal nature.
(R) Combined pills contain estrogen and progestogen, which maintain constant hormone levels and require strict adherence to daily dosage.

934 / 1125

Category: Easily available & affordable

934. (A) Copper-releasing IUDs like CuT are highly effective because they release copper ions that immobilize sperm.
(R) Copper ions released by IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperm and impair their motility, preventing fertilization.

935 / 1125

Category: Safe, effective, reversible

935. (A) The copper-releasing IUDs are more effective than non-medicated IUDs like Lippes loop.
(R) Copper ions released by IUDs suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity, while non-medicated IUDs only act as physical barriers.

936 / 1125

Category: Ideal Contraceptive Features

936. (A) Saheli is considered an ideal contraceptive method because it is non-steroidal and has minimal side-effects.
(R) Saheli does not contain hormones, making it safe for long-term use without disrupting the user's hormonal balance.

937 / 1125

Category: Population regulation

937. (A) Intra-uterine devices (IUDs) are more effective than natural family planning methods in preventing pregnancy.
(R) IUDs prevent fertilization by creating a hostile uterine environment for sperm and implantation of a fertilized egg, whereas natural methods rely on abstinence during fertile periods.

938 / 1125

Category: Maternal & child health

938. (A) The effectiveness of natural family planning methods is comparable to artificial contraception methods when used perfectly.
(R) Natural methods like the calendar and mucus method rely on tracking fertility signs, which can be highly accurate if followed meticulously.

939 / 1125

Category: Family planning

939. (A) The 'Saheli' pill is a combined hormonal contraceptive containing estrogen and progestogen.
(R) Combined hormonal contraceptives prevent pregnancy primarily by inhibiting ovulation and altering cervical mucus.

940 / 1125

Category: Need for Birth Control

940. (A) The sharp decline in death rates due to advancements in healthcare and agriculture has led to an exponential increase in human population, necessitating the need for birth control measures.
(R) Uncontrolled population growth can lead to resource depletion, economic strain, and environmental degradation, making family planning essential.

941 / 1125

Category: Birth Control & Contraception

941. (A) The combined pill containing estrogen and progestogen is more effective than the mini pill containing only progestogen because it suppresses ovulation entirely.
(R) Progestogen in the mini pill thickens cervical mucus and alters the uterine lining but does not consistently inhibit ovulation.

942 / 1125

Category: Media campaigns (“We Two, Our Two”)

942. (A) The slogan *‘Hum Do Hamare Do’* promotes the one-child norm to control population growth.
(R) Statutory measures like raising the marriageable age and incentives for small families have led to a significant increase in acceptors of family planning methods.

943 / 1125

Category: Family planning incentives

943. (A) Raising the statutory marriageable age for females to 18 years and males to 21 years in India directly reduces the fertility rate by limiting early marriages.
(R) Early marriages often lead to longer reproductive spans, increasing the likelihood of larger family sizes.

944 / 1125

Category: Marriage age laws

944. (A) Raising the legal marriage age for females to 21 years in India would significantly reduce the total fertility rate and improve maternal health outcomes.
(R) Higher marriage age delays childbirth, allowing women to complete education and gain economic independence, thereby reducing early pregnancies.

945 / 1125

Category: Government Initiatives

945. (A) The Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) Programme integrates family planning with maternal and child health services to ensure comprehensive reproductive health.
(R) The RCH Programme aims to reduce maternal and infant mortality rates by providing access to safe delivery practices and immunization.

946 / 1125

Category: Malnutrition & health crisis

946. (A) The sharp decline in death rates due to improved healthcare and education has directly led to an unmanageable population explosion.
(R) Increased life expectancy without corresponding birth control measures results in overpopulation, exacerbating malnutrition and health crises.

947 / 1125

Category: Unemployment, poverty

947. (A) Population explosion leads to increased unemployment due to a mismatch between job creation and workforce growth.
(R) The rapid increase in population results in underemployment as individuals settle for low-paying jobs due to limited opportunities.

948 / 1125

Category: Pressure on resources

948. (A) The rapid increase in human population has led to severe pressure on natural resources such as fresh water, arable land, and fossil fuels.
(R) The carrying capacity of the Earth is finite, and exceeding it leads to resource depletion and environmental degradation.

949 / 1125

Category: Problems of Overpopulation

949. (A) The rapid increase in India's population is primarily due to improved healthcare and reduced natural checks like famines and epidemics.
(R) The Family Welfare Programme in India focuses solely on increasing the birth rate to counterbalance high mortality rates.

950 / 1125

Category: Improved medical care & nutrition

950. (A) The population explosion is solely caused by improved medical care and nutrition, as these factors have eliminated deaths from all diseases.
(R) Improved medical care and nutrition have reduced mortality rates, but birth rates remain high, leading to exponential population growth.

951 / 1125

Category: High birth rate, low mortality

951. (A) The population explosion in India is primarily due to a high birth rate coupled with a declining death rate.
(R) Improved healthcare and better living conditions have led to increased life expectancy, reducing the death rate while birth rates remain high.

952 / 1125

Category: Population Growth Factors

952. (A) The rapid decline in death rate combined with sustained high birth rate is the primary reason for population explosion in India.
(R) Improved healthcare and elimination of natural checks like famines have significantly reduced mortality rates while birth control measures have not been equally effective.

953 / 1125

Category: Calendar (thythm) method,

953. (A) The calendar method is highly reliable for all women regardless of their menstrual cycle regularity.
(R) Ovulation can be predicted accurately in women with irregular menstrual cycles.

954 / 1125

Category: Natural C ontraceptive Methods

954. (A) The lactational amenorrhea method is highly effective as a natural contraceptive method for all breastfeeding mothers.
(R) Breastfeeding suppresses ovulation due to hormonal changes only if the mother exclusively breastfeeds and for up to six months postpartum.

955 / 1125

Category: METHODS OF BIRTH CONTROL AND CONTRACEPTIVE DEVICES

955. (A) Saheli is a non-steroidal contraceptive pill that does not interfere with ovulation.
(R) Saheli works by altering the cervical mucus and making the endometrium unsuitable for implantation.

956 / 1125

Category: POPULATION EXPLOSION AND BIRTH CONTROL

956. (A) The widespread use of hormonal contraceptives has significantly contributed to reducing the global population growth rate.
(R) Hormonal contraceptives prevent fertilization by inhibiting ovulation and altering the uterine lining, thereby decreasing birth rates.

957 / 1125

Category: Hormonal dose (within 72 hours)

957. (A) Emergency contraceptive pills containing levonorgestrel should be taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse to maximize effectiveness.
(R) Levonorgestrel works by delaying ovulation, thickening cervical mucus, and preventing sperm movement.

958 / 1125

Category: Morning-after pill

958. (A) The morning-after pill is effective for up to 72 hours after unprotected intercourse.
(R) It contains progestogen and levonorgestrel, which prevent fertilization or implantation.

959 / 1125

Category: Emergency Contraception

959. (A) Emergency hormonal contraception (EHC) is most effective when taken immediately after unprotected intercourse.
(R) The effectiveness of EHC decreases with time due to the decreasing probability of preventing ovulation or fertilization.

960 / 1125

Category: Tubectomy / tubal ligation — female

960. (A) Tubectomy is a permanent method of female sterilization involving the tying and cutting of fallopian tubes.
(R) The procedure prevents pregnancy by blocking the passage of eggs from ovaries to the uterus, but does not affect hormonal functions.

961 / 1125

Category: Vasectomy — male

961. (A) Vasectomy involves cutting and tying the vas deferens to prevent sperm transport.
(R) The procedure ensures semen no longer contains sperms but does not affect sexual function or orgasm.

962 / 1125

Category: Surgical Methods (Sterilization)

962. ) (A) Vasectomy prevents pregnancy by blocking the transport of sperms.
(R) In vasectomy, the vas deferens is tied and cut to prevent sperm from reaching the semen.

963 / 1125

Category: Inhibit implantation

963. (A) Hormone-releasing IUDs make the uterus unsuitable for implantation by altering the endometrial lining.
(R) The progestogen released by these IUDs thickens the cervical mucus, preventing sperm entry and fertilization.

964 / 1125

Category: Thicken cervical mucus

964. (A) Thickened cervical mucus acts as a barrier to sperm movement.
(R) Hormonal contraceptives like progestin-only pills increase the viscosity of cervical mucus.

965 / 1125

Category: Prevent ovulation

965. (A) The combined pill containing estrogen and progestogen prevents ovulation by inhibiting the ovaries from releasing eggs.
(R) Estrogen in the combined pill stops the ovaries from shedding their eggs, while progestogen makes the cervical mucus hostile to sperm.

966 / 1125

Category: Mechanism:

966. (A) The rhythm method is highly effective in preventing pregnancy as it accurately predicts ovulation.
(R) The fertile period in the menstrual cycle can be determined precisely by tracking basal body temperature and cervical mucus changes.

967 / 1125

Category: Injections & implants

967. (A) Progestogen-only implants are more effective than combined hormonal injections because they provide contraception for several years without frequent administration.
(R) Progestogen released by implants prevents ovulation and thickens cervical mucus, making it difficult for sperm to enter the uterus.

968 / 1125

Category: Saheli (non-steroidal pill, weekly)

968. (A) Saheli is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill that needs to be taken once a week.
(R) Saheli contains progestogen-estrogen combinations, which prevent ovulation and implantation.

969 / 1125

Category: Mini pill (progesterone only)

969. (A) The mini pill is a reliable contraceptive method when taken daily at the exact same time.
(R) The effectiveness of the mini pill depends on maintaining consistent progesterone levels to thicken cervical mucus.

970 / 1125

Category: Oral pills: combined pill (estrogen + progesterone)

970. (A) The combined oral contraceptive pill is highly effective when taken at the same time every day.
(R) Consistent hormone levels maintained by regular intake prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus to block sperm entry.

971 / 1125

Category: Hormonal Methods

971. (A) The combined pill prevents pregnancy by suppressing ovulation and altering the cervical mucus.
(R) The estrogen in the combined pill inhibits ovulation, while progestogen makes the cervical mucus hostile to sperm.

972 / 1125

Category: Increase phagocytosis of sperm

972. (A) Intrauterine devices (IUDs) increase phagocytosis of sperm in the uterus.
(R) The presence of a foreign body like an IUD triggers an immune response leading to increased activity of macrophages.

973 / 1125

Category: Prevent fertilization & implantation

973. (A) Female condoms are less likely to tear compared to male condoms.
(R) Female condoms are made of polyurethane, which is more durable than latex.

974 / 1125

Category: Mechanism:

974. (A) The calendar method of contraception is highly effective because it accurately predicts ovulation without fail.
(R) The fertile period in women always occurs between days 10-17 of the menstrual cycle.

975 / 1125

Category: Hormone-releasing: LNG-20, Progestasert

975. (A) Progestasert releases progesterone, which prevents pregnancy by making the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
(R) The released hormone thickens cervical mucus and thins the endometrial lining, blocking sperm entry and inhibiting implantation.

976 / 1125

Category: Copper-T types: CuT, Cu-7, Multiload-375

976. (A) Copper-releasing IUDs like $CuT$, $Cu-7$, and $Multiload-375$ are effective contraceptives because they release copper ions.
(R) The copper ions released by these IUDs suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity, preventing pregnancy.

977 / 1125

Category: Non-medicated: Lippes Loop

977. (A) The Lippes Loop is a non-medicated intra-uterine device that prevents pregnancy by increasing phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
(R) It releases hormones to alter the uterine environment and prevent implantation.

978 / 1125

Category: Intrauterine Devices (IUD/IUCD)

978. (A) Copper-releasing IUDs like CuT suppress sperm motility by releasing copper ions.
(R) Copper ions interfere with the fertilizing capacity of sperms and increase phagocytosis within the uterus.

979 / 1125

Category: Spermicidal foams/jellies

979. (A) Spermicidal foams are highly effective when used alone as a contraceptive method.
(R) They contain nonoxynol-9 which immobilizes sperms, providing complete protection against pregnancy.

980 / 1125

Category: Diaphragm, cervical cap

980. (A) A diaphragm must be fitted by a healthcare professional to ensure proper size and effectiveness.
(R) An incorrectly fitted diaphragm may allow sperm to bypass the barrier, leading to contraceptive failure.

981 / 1125

Category: Female condom (Femidom)

981. (A) The female condom (Femidom) provides protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
(R) It acts as a physical barrier, preventing the exchange of bodily fluids during intercourse.

982 / 1125

Category: Male condom (Nirodh)

982. (A) Male condoms like Nirodh are highly effective in preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
(R) The male condom acts as a physical barrier, preventing semen from entering the vagina during sexual intercourse.

983 / 1125

Category: Barrier Methods

983. (A) Female condoms provide protection against sexually transmitted infections.
(R) Female condoms are made of polyurethane and act as a physical barrier to prevent sperm entry.

984 / 1125

Category: Post-coital douching (less effective)

984. (A) Post-coital douching is a highly reliable method of contraception.
(R) Sperm can enter the cervix within seconds, making it difficult to remove them completely through douching.

985 / 1125

Category: Coitus interruptus

985. (A) Coitus interruptus is a highly effective contraceptive method with a near-zero failure rate.
(R) Pre-ejaculate fluid does not contain any sperm, ensuring no risk of pregnancy.

986 / 1125

Category: Lactational amenorrhea

986. (A) Lactational amenorrhea is an effective natural method of birth control for up to six months post-childbirth if the mother breastfeeds fully.
(R) Intense breastfeeding suppresses ovulation by altering hormonal levels, preventing conception.

987 / 1125

Category: Cervical mucus method

987. (A) The cervical mucus becomes thin, clear, and stretchy during ovulation.
(R) This change in mucus consistency indicates the fertile period when conception is most likely to occur.

988 / 1125

Category: Temperature method

988. (A) The temperature method is a highly reliable standalone contraceptive method as it accurately predicts ovulation based solely on basal body temperature (BBT).
(R) Stress and illness do not affect the accuracy of BBT readings.

989 / 1125

Category: Calendar method

989. (A) The calendar method of family planning is highly reliable for women with irregular menstrual cycles.
(R) Irregular menstrual cycles make it difficult to predict the exact timing of ovulation, leading to unreliable fertility estimates.

990 / 1125

Category: Periodic abstinence

990. (A) The periodic abstinence method is highly effective for all couples, regardless of menstrual cycle regularity.
(R) The effectiveness of the periodic abstinence method depends on accurately predicting ovulation and strict adherence to abstaining during the fertile period.

991 / 1125

Category: Natural Methods

991. (A) The lactational amenorrhea method is effective for contraception only up to six months post-parturition.
(R) Intense lactation suppresses ovulation completely, preventing conception during this period.

992 / 1125

Category: Minimal side-effects

992. (A) Saheli is considered an ideal contraceptive due to its minimal side effects and high contraceptive value.
(R) Saheli contains a non-steroidal preparation and needs to be taken only once a week.

993 / 1125

Category: Easily available & affordable

993. (A) IUDs are considered more reliable than natural methods of contraception.
(R) IUDs prevent implantation by altering the uterine environment.

994 / 1125

Category: Safe, effective, reversible

994. (A) The lactational amenorrhea method is a highly effective contraceptive method during the first six months postpartum if the mother exclusively breastfeeds the infant.
(R) Intense lactation suppresses ovulation by inhibiting the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), thereby preventing the menstrual cycle.

995 / 1125

Category: Ideal Contraceptive Features

995. (A) Barrier methods like condoms are considered ideal contraceptives for many individuals.
(R) Condoms are user-friendly, easily available, and do not interfere with the sexual act.

996 / 1125

Category: Population regulation

996. (A) The use of intrauterine devices (IUDs) is an effective method of birth control.
(R) IUDs prevent the fertilized egg from implanting in the uterine wall.

997 / 1125

Category: Maternal & child health

997. (A) The Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) Programmes aim to promote breast feeding as it ensures better immunity and nutrition for infants.
(R) Breast milk contains essential antibodies and nutrients that protect the child from infections and promote healthy growth.

998 / 1125

Category: Family planning

998. (A) The rhythm method is a highly reliable form of natural family planning.
(R) The rhythm method relies on tracking menstrual cycles to avoid pregnancy, but its effectiveness depends on the accuracy of cycle prediction.

999 / 1125

Category: Need for Birth Control

999. (A) The Family Welfare Programme in India promotes voluntary choices regarding family size and spacing.
(R) Uncontrolled population growth can lead to resource depletion and strain on infrastructure.

1000 / 1125

Category: Birth Control & Contraception

1000. (A) The combined pill is more effective than natural methods of contraception.
(R) The combined pill contains hormones that prevent ovulation and make the cervical mucus hostile to sperm.

1001 / 1125

Category: Media campaigns (“We Two, Our Two”)

1001. (A) The "We Two, Our Two" campaign was introduced to encourage couples to limit their family size to two children.
(R) India's high population growth rate is primarily due to declining death rates and persistent birth rates despite improved healthcare.

1002 / 1125

Category: Family planning incentives

1002. (A) Incentives given to couples with small families aim to stabilize population growth.
(R) The National Family Welfare Programme promotes voluntary adoption of family planning methods.

1003 / 1125

Category: Marriage age laws

1003. (A) The legal marriage age for females in India is set at 18 years to promote education and reduce maternal mortality rates.
(R) Delaying marriage helps in reducing the reproductive span of women, thereby contributing to population control.

1004 / 1125

Category: Government Initiatives

1004. (A) The National Family Welfare Programme in India aims to stabilize the population growth rate.
(R) It provides cent per cent central assistance for family welfare programmes through primary health centres and sub-centres in rural areas.

1005 / 1125

Category: Malnutrition & health crisis

1005. (A) Increased agricultural production and improved healthcare have led to a decline in death rates.
(R) The decline in death rates is primarily due to better public health measures and medical advancements.

1006 / 1125

Category: Unemployment, poverty

1006. (A) Rapid population growth leads to higher unemployment rates due to insufficient job creation.
(R) The demand for jobs increases with population, but employment opportunities do not grow proportionately.

1007 / 1125

Category: Pressure on resources

1007. (A) The rapid increase in human population has led to a decline in the availability of freshwater resources per capita.
(R) Overpopulation increases demand for water, while supply remains finite.

1008 / 1125

Category: Problems of Overpopulation

1008. (A) The rapid decline in death rates without a proportional decrease in birth rates leads to overpopulation.

(R) Improved healthcare and living conditions have reduced mortality rates, but birth rates remain high due to lack of awareness about family planning.

1009 / 1125

Category: Improved medical care & nutrition

1009. (A) Improved medical care has significantly reduced infant mortality rates in developing countries.
(R) Vaccination programs and better maternal healthcare have directly contributed to lowering death rates among infants.

1010 / 1125

Category: High birth rate, low mortality

1010. (A) The high birth rate and declining death rate contribute to population explosion.
(R) Improved healthcare and better living conditions reduce mortality rates but do not proportionately decrease birth rates.

1011 / 1125

Category: Population Growth Factors

1011. (A) Improved healthcare facilities and better medical care have led to a decline in the death rate.
(R) A declining death rate without a corresponding decrease in birth rate contributes to population explosion.

1012 / 1125

Category: Calendar (thythm) method,

1012. method) (A) The calendar method is an unreliable birth control method because it requires precise prediction of ovulation.
(R) Ovulation timing can vary due to factors like stress or illness, making it difficult to accurately estimate fertile days.

1013 / 1125

Category: Natural C ontraceptive Methods

1013. (A) The Lactational Amenorrhea Method is an effective natural contraceptive method for up to six months after childbirth.
(R) During intense lactation, ovulation is suppressed due to hormonal changes, preventing conception.

1014 / 1125

Category: METHODS OF BIRTH CONTROL AND CONTRACEPTIVE DEVICES

1014. (A) Copper-releasing IUDs like CuT are highly effective contraceptives because they release copper ions that suppress sperm motility.
(R) Copper ions create a hostile environment for sperm, preventing fertilization.

1015 / 1125

Category: POPULATION EXPLOSION AND BIRTH CONTROL

1015. (A) The calendar method of natural family planning is highly effective in preventing pregnancy because it accurately predicts the safe period for intercourse.
(R) The calendar method relies on tracking menstrual cycles and assumes ovulation occurs exactly midway between two menstrual periods.

1016 / 1125

Category: Hormonal dose (within 72 hours)

1016. (A) Emergency contraception must be taken within 72 hours after unprotected intercourse to be effective.
(R) Progestogen and levonorgestrel in the emergency contraceptive pill work by preventing ovulation or fertilization.

1017 / 1125

Category: Morning-after pill

1017. (A) The morning-after pill is effective only within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse.
(R) It contains progestogen and levonorgestrel, which prevent ovulation or fertilization.

1018 / 1125

Category: Emergency Contraception

1018. (A) Emergency hormonal contraception (EHC) can prevent pregnancy if taken within 72 hours after unprotected intercourse.
(R) EHC works by preventing ovulation and altering the endometrial lining to inhibit implantation.

1019 / 1125

Category: Tubectomy / tubal ligation — female

1019. (A) Tubectomy is a permanent method of female sterilization by cutting and tying the fallopian tubes.
(R) This prevents fertilization by blocking the transport of eggs to the womb.

1020 / 1125

Category: Vasectomy — male

1020. (A) Vasectomy is a surgical method for male sterilization where the vas deferens are tied and cut.
(R) This prevents the transport of sperms from the testes to the penis, ensuring no sperm in ejaculate.

1021 / 1125

Category: Surgical Methods (Sterilization)

1021. (A) Vasectomy involves tying and cutting the vas deferens to prevent sperm transport.
(R) This procedure ensures permanent contraception by blocking the passage of sperms.

1022 / 1125

Category: Inhibit implantation

1022. ) (A) Intra-uterine devices (IUDs) prevent pregnancy by inhibiting implantation of the fertilized egg in the uterus.
(R) IUDs release hormones that make the uterine lining unsuitable for implantation.

1023 / 1125

Category: Thicken cervical mucus

1023. (A) Hormonal contraceptives like progestin-based pills thicken cervical mucus to prevent sperm movement.
(R) Progesterone increases the viscosity of cervical mucus, making it less permeable to sperm.

1024 / 1125

Category: Prevent ovulation

1024. (A) The combined pill prevents ovulation by suppressing FSH and LH secretion.
(R) Estrogen in the combined pill inhibits the release of eggs from the ovaries.

1025 / 1125

Category: Mechanism:

1025. (A) Vasectomy is a method of sterilization in males where the fallopian tubes are tied and cut.
(R) Vasectomy blocks the transport of sperms from the testes to the penis, preventing conception.

1026 / 1125

Category: Injections & implants

1026. (A) Hormonal injections and implants are highly effective contraceptive methods.
(R) They work by releasing progestogen to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus.

1027 / 1125

Category: Saheli (non-steroidal pill, weekly)

1027. (A) Saheli is a once-a-week oral contraceptive pill for females.
(R) Saheli contains a non-steroidal preparation and has high contraceptive value with very few side effects.

1028 / 1125

Category: Mini pill (progesterone only)

1028. (A) The mini pill primarily works by thickening cervical mucus and altering the uterine lining.
(R) Thickening of cervical mucus prevents sperm from reaching the egg, while altering the uterine lining makes it less receptive to implantation.

1029 / 1125

Category: Oral pills: combined pill (estrogen + progesterone)

1029. (A) The combined oral contraceptive pill prevents pregnancy by suppressing ovulation and altering the uterine lining.
(R) Estrogen in the pill inhibits egg release from ovaries, while progestogen thickens cervical mucus and changes the womb lining to prevent implantation.

1030 / 1125

Category: Hormonal Methods

1030. (A) Combined pills contain both estrogen and progestogen, while mini pills contain only progestogen.
(R) Estrogen in combined pills prevents ovulation, whereas progestogen thickens cervical mucus to block sperm.

1031 / 1125

Category: Increase phagocytosis of sperm

1031. (A) Phagocytosis of sperm is a method of birth control.
(R) Increased phagocytosis prevents fertilization by destroying sperm.

1032 / 1125

Category: Prevent fertilization & implantation

1032. (A) Male condoms prevent fertilization by blocking the entry of sperms into the vagina.
(R) Male condoms are made of latex, which acts as a physical barrier to sperms.

1033 / 1125

Category: Mechanism:

1033. (A) Vasectomy is a surgical method of sterilization in males where the vas deferens are tied and cut to prevent sperm transport.
(R) Vasectomy does not affect emotional feelings or sex life because the seminal fluid still contains sperms after the operation.

1034 / 1125

Category: Hormone-releasing: LNG-20, Progestasert

1034. (A) LNG-20 releases levonorgestrel into the uterus to prevent pregnancy.
(R) Levonorgestrel thickens cervical mucus and suppresses sperm motility.

1035 / 1125

Category: Copper-T types: CuT, Cu-7, Multiload-375

1035. (A) Copper-T types like CuT, Cu-7, and Multiload-375 release copper ions that suppress sperm motility.
(R) The copper ions released by these IUDs interfere with the fertilizing capacity of sperms.

1036 / 1125

Category: Non-medicated: Lippes Loop

1036. (A) The Lippes loop prevents pregnancy by increasing phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
(R) Phagocytosis reduces the chances of fertilization by destroying sperms.

1037 / 1125

Category: Intrauterine Devices (IUD/IUCD)

1037. (A) Copper-releasing IUDs like CuT are highly effective contraceptives.
(R) Copper ions released by these IUDs suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity.

1038 / 1125

Category: Spermicidal foams/jellies

1038. (A) Spermicidal foams/jellies are effective when used alone for contraception.
(R) They chemically destroy sperms and provide reliable protection without any additional methods.

1039 / 1125

Category: Diaphragm, cervical cap

1039. (A) A diaphragm is a rubber cap inserted into the vagina to prevent sperm from entering the womb.
(R) Diaphragms are coated with spermicidal jelly to enhance their effectiveness.

1040 / 1125

Category: Female condom (Femidom)

1040. (A) Female condoms are less likely to tear compared to male condoms.
(R) Female condoms are made of thin soft polyurethane, which is more durable than latex used in male condoms.

1041 / 1125

Category: Male condom (Nirodh)

1041. ) (A) Male condoms, such as Nirodh, prevent pregnancy by acting as a physical barrier to sperm.
(R) Nirodh is made of latex and prevents the entry of sperm into the female reproductive tract.

1042 / 1125

Category: Barrier Methods

1042. (A) Male condoms are effective in preventing sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
(R) Male condoms act as a physical barrier that prevents direct contact between bodily fluids.

1043 / 1125

Category: Post-coital douching (less effective)

1043. (A) Post-coital douching is a highly effective method of contraception.
(R) It guarantees the removal of all sperm from the vagina immediately after intercourse.

1044 / 1125

Category: Coitus interruptus

1044. (A) Coitus interruptus is a natural method of contraception.
(R) It involves the withdrawal of the penis from the vagina before ejaculation to prevent semen deposition.

1045 / 1125

Category: Lactational amenorrhea

1045. (A) Lactational amenorrhea is an effective natural method of contraception for up to six months after childbirth.
(R) Intense lactation postpartum suppresses ovulation by preventing the menstrual cycle.

1046 / 1125

Category: Cervical mucus method

1046. (A) The cervical mucus becomes thin and stretchy around ovulation.
(R) This change in mucus consistency helps facilitate sperm movement and indicates the fertile period.

1047 / 1125

Category: Temperature method

1047. (A) The body temperature rises by $0.5^\circ$F a day after ovulation.
(R) This rise in temperature helps in identifying the fertile period to avoid conception.

1048 / 1125

Category: Calendar method

1048. (A) The calendar method is based on tracking the menstrual cycle to identify fertile days.
(R) This method prevents conception by avoiding intercourse during the fertile period when ovulation occurs.

1049 / 1125

Category: Periodic abstinence

1049. (A) Periodic abstinence is a natural method of birth control.
(R) It involves abstaining from coitus during the fertile period (days 10–17 of the menstrual cycle).

1050 / 1125

Category: Natural Methods

1050. (A) The lactational amenorrhea method is effective as a natural contraceptive for up to six months postpartum.
(R) Breastfeeding suppresses ovulation due to hormonal changes.

1051 / 1125

Category: Minimal side-effects

1051. (A) Saheli is a contraceptive pill with minimal side-effects.
(R) Saheli contains a non-steroidal preparation and is taken once a week.

1052 / 1125

Category: Easily available & affordable

1052. (A) The calendar method is a natural family planning technique that requires abstinence during fertile days.
(R) The calendar method helps in identifying the safe period by tracking menstrual cycles.

1053 / 1125

Category: Safe, effective, reversible

1053. (A) The lactational amenorrhea method is a natural birth control method.
(R) Ovulation and the menstrual cycle do not occur during intense lactation following childbirth.

1054 / 1125

Category: Ideal Contraceptive Features

1054. (A) Condoms are considered an ideal contraceptive method.
(R) They are user-friendly, easily available, and have minimal side-effects.

1055 / 1125

Category: Population regulation

1055. (A) Increased health facilities and better living conditions have led to population explosion.
(R) The carrying capacity of the earth is limited.

1056 / 1125

Category: Maternal & child health

1056. (A) The combined pill is an effective method of contraception because it contains estrogen and progestogen which prevent ovulation.
(R) Estrogen in the combined pill stops the ovaries from releasing eggs.

1057 / 1125

Category: Family planning

1057. (A) The calendar method is a natural family planning technique that estimates the fertile period based on menstrual cycles.
(R) In the calendar method, ovulation occurs exactly in the middle of the menstrual cycle.

1058 / 1125

Category: Need for Birth Control

1058. (A) India's population is expected to reach 1,369 million by 2020 as per the 2011 census.
(R) The high growth rate is due to declining death rates and increasing life expectancy achieved through improved healthcare and living conditions.

1059 / 1125

Category: Birth Control & Contraception

1059. (A) The calendar method is a natural family planning technique that helps in identifying fertile days.
(R) The calendar method tracks menstrual cycles to predict ovulation based on previous cycle lengths.

1060 / 1125

Category: Media campaigns (“We Two, Our Two”)

1060. (A) The slogan "We Two, Our Two" promotes small family norms.
(R) Media campaigns aim to address population explosion by encouraging birth control methods.

1061 / 1125

Category: Family planning incentives

1061. (A) The Indian government provides incentives to couples with small families.
(R) Incentives help in controlling population growth by encouraging family planning.

1062 / 1125

Category: Marriage age laws

1062. (A) Statutory raising of marriageable age of females to 18 years and males to 21 years helps in controlling population growth.
(R) Delaying marriage reduces the reproductive span and thereby controls birth rate.

1063 / 1125

Category: Government Initiatives

1063. (A) The National Family Welfare Programme was launched in 1951 to reduce birth rates and stabilize population growth.
(R) The programme provides family planning services under maternal and child health care.

1064 / 1125

Category: Malnutrition & health crisis

1064. (A) Increased life expectancy in India is primarily due to better public health measures.
(R) The spread of education has directly reduced the death rate in India.

1065 / 1125

Category: Unemployment, poverty

1065. (A) Rapid population growth can lead to unemployment.
(R) With more people entering the workforce than available jobs, unemployment rates rise.

1066 / 1125

Category: Pressure on resources

1066. (A) Uncontrolled population growth leads to acute food shortages.
(R) The carrying capacity of the earth is limited and cannot sustain unlimited population growth.

1067 / 1125

Category: Problems of Overpopulation

1067. (A) Overpopulation leads to acute food shortages and malnutrition in a population.
(R) The carrying capacity of the Earth is limited, and excessive population growth puts pressure on limited resources.

1068 / 1125

Category: Improved medical care & nutrition

1068. (A) Improved medical care has led to a decrease in death rates.
(R) Vaccinations and antibiotics have made previously fatal diseases preventable or curable.

1069 / 1125

Category: High birth rate, low mortality

1069. (A) The population explosion is primarily caused by a high birth rate and low mortality rate.
(R) Improved healthcare and living conditions have reduced the death rate while birth rates remain high.

1070 / 1125

Category: Population Growth Factors

1070. (A) Increased health facilities and better living conditions have led to a rise in population growth rate.
(R) Improved medical attention has decreased the death rate while birth rates remain high.

1071 / 1125

Category: Calendar (thythm) method,

1071. (A) The calendar method is used to predict fertile days in a woman's menstrual cycle.
(R) The calendar method requires abstinence from coitus during the estimated fertile period.

1072 / 1125

Category: Natural C ontraceptive Methods

1072. (A) Lactational amenorrhea method is effective for up to six months after childbirth.
(R) Ovulation does not occur during intense lactation due to hormonal changes.

1073 / 1125

Category: METHODS OF BIRTH CONTROL AND CONTRACEPTIVE DEVICES

1073. (A) Copper-releasing IUDs like CuT are more effective than non-medicated IUDs because they release copper ions that make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to sperm.
(R) The presence of copper ions in the uterus interferes with sperm motility and viability.

1074 / 1125

Category: POPULATION EXPLOSION AND BIRTH CONTROL

1074. (A) The use of barrier contraceptives like condoms helps in preventing sexually transmitted diseases.
(R) Barrier contraceptives block the physical contact between sperm and ovum.

1075 / 1125

Category: REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH—PROBLEMS AND STRATEGIES

1075. (A) In vitro fertilization (IVF) is preferred over gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) in cases where the female has blocked fallopian tubes.
(R) IVF involves fertilizing the egg outside the body and then transferring the embryo into the uterus, bypassing the need for functional fallopian tubes.

1076 / 1125

Category: REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH—PROBLEMS AND STRATEGIES

1076. (A) Condoms are highly effective in preventing both unwanted pregnancies and sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
(R) Condoms act as a physical barrier that prevents the exchange of bodily fluids between partners.

1077 / 1125

Category: REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH—PROBLEMS AND STRATEGIES

1077. (A) Proper education about reproductive health helps in preventing sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
(R) Awareness programs provide information about safe sexual practices and disease prevention.

1078 / 1125

Category: Legal measures (sex determination ban, MTP regulation)

1078. (A) The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 allows termination of pregnancy up to 24 weeks only if two registered medical practitioners agree on substantial risk to the mother or foetus.
(R) Second trimester abortions are medically riskier and require stricter regulations to prevent unsafe practices.

1079 / 1125

Category: Counselling for reproductive health

1079. (A) Counselling for family planning is essential to reduce maternal and infant mortality rates by helping couples make informed decisions about child spacing.
(R) Proper spacing between pregnancies allows the mother to recover fully from the previous pregnancy, reducing risks of complications in subsequent pregnancies.

1080 / 1125

Category: Maternal & child healthcare

1080. (A) Maternal and child healthcare programs significantly reduce infant mortality rates by ensuring timely immunizations.
(R) Immunization prevents life-threatening diseases in infants, which directly contributes to lowering infant mortality rates.

1081 / 1125

Category: Sex education

1081. (A) Implementation of comprehensive sex education in schools has shown a significant decrease in teenage pregnancies and sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
(R) Comprehensive sex education provides scientifically accurate information about reproductive health, safe sexual practices, and contraceptive methods.

1082 / 1125

Category: Key Strategies

1082. (A) Educating individuals about reproductive health leads to better decision-making regarding family planning and safe sex practices.
(R) Awareness programs empower women by providing them with the knowledge to exercise control over their reproductive choices.

1083 / 1125

Category: Awareness & education (schools, media, NGOs)

1083. (A) NGOs play a crucial role in reproductive health awareness by conducting community-based programs and providing counseling services.
(R) Community participation enhances the effectiveness of reproductive health education as it ensures culturally relevant dissemination of information.

1084 / 1125

Category: RCH (Reproductive & Child Health) initiative

1084. (A) The Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) program focuses solely on maternal health, ignoring child health aspects.
(R) One of the key objectives of the RCH program is to provide maternal and child health care services.

1085 / 1125

Category: Family Planning programme

1085. (A) Intra-uterine devices (IUDs) are more effective than barrier methods like condoms because they prevent fertilization by altering the uterine environment.
(R) IUDs release hormones that inhibit ovulation, thereby preventing pregnancy.

1086 / 1125

Category: National Programs

1086. (A) The Family Planning Program (1951) in India aimed to stabilize the population by reducing birth rates primarily through compulsory sterilization measures.
(R) The program was criticized for its coercive methods, which violated individual reproductive rights and led to widespread resistance.

1087 / 1125

Category: Social responsibility

1087. (A) Government initiatives like the Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) Programme are essential for improving reproductive health services in society.

(R) These programs focus on education, family planning, and maternal healthcare, addressing social responsibility by ensuring equitable access to reproductive health resources.

1088 / 1125

Category: Emotional & behavioral stability

1088. (A) Emotional stability in reproductive health ensures individuals can handle infertility-related distress effectively.
(R) Emotional stability involves managing stress and anxiety related to reproductive health challenges through informed decision-making.

1089 / 1125

Category: Healthy reproductive organs

1089. (A) Regular screening for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is essential for maintaining reproductive health because it ensures early detection and treatment.
(R) STIs like Chlamydia and Gonorrhea can lead to infertility if left untreated.

1090 / 1125

Category: Importance

1090. (A) Family planning services help in stabilizing population growth by enabling couples to decide the number and spacing of their children.
(R) Reproductive health programs providing contraception access directly contribute to reducing maternal and infant mortality rates.

1091 / 1125

Category: Components: physical, mental, social well-being

1091. (A) Statutory bans on sex-determination tests like amniocentesis are essential for achieving social well-being in reproductive health.
(R) These bans prevent gender discrimination and promote equal opportunities, which are key components of social well-being.

1092 / 1125

Category: WHO definition

1092. (A) The WHO definition of reproductive health includes emotional well-being as a key component.

(R) Emotional well-being ensures individuals develop healthy attitudes towards sexuality without fear or guilt, which is essential for responsible reproductive choices.

1093 / 1125

Category: Reproductive Health — Meaning & Scope

1093. (A) A reproductively healthy society requires only the physical well-being of individuals regarding reproduction.
(R) According to WHO, reproductive health encompasses emotional, behavioural, and social aspects in addition to physical well-being.

1094 / 1125

Category: Legal measures (sex determination ban, MTP regulation)

1094. (A) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is legally permitted only up to 24 weeks of pregnancy under the MTP Act, 1971.
(R) The risk to the pregnant woman’s life increases significantly beyond 24 weeks of pregnancy.

1095 / 1125

Category: Counselling for reproductive health

1095. (A) Genetic counselling is essential for couples contemplating consanguineous marriages.
(R) Consanguineous marriages increase the risk of genetic disorders in offspring.

1096 / 1125

Category: Maternal & child healthcare

1096. (A) Amniocentesis is banned in India to prevent female foeticide.
(R) Amniocentesis can be used for sex determination of the fetus.

1097 / 1125

Category: Sex education

1097. (A) Sex education is essential to prevent the spread of sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
(R) Educating individuals about safe sexual practices reduces risky behavior and increases awareness about STI prevention.

1098 / 1125

Category: Key Strategies

1098. (A) The Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) Programmes in India cover wider reproduction-related areas beyond just family planning.
(R) The RCH Programmes aim to ensure a reproductively healthy society by integrating maternal and child health care with awareness campaigns.

1099 / 1125

Category: Awareness & education (schools, media, NGOs)

1099. (A) Schools play a crucial role in spreading reproductive health awareness by providing sex education to dispel myths and misconceptions.
(R) Adolescents often lack accurate information about safe sexual practices, making school education essential for their well-being.

1100 / 1125

Category: RCH (Reproductive & Child Health) initiative

1100. (A) The RCH program focuses on maternal and child health care to build a reproductively healthy society.
(R) The RCH initiative aims to reduce maternal and infant mortality rates by providing better healthcare facilities.

1101 / 1125

Category: Family Planning programme

1101. (A) The use of barrier contraceptives like condoms helps in preventing sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
(R) Barrier contraceptives physically block the entry of pathogens into the reproductive tract.

1102 / 1125

Category: National Programs

1102. (A) The Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) Program aims to improve maternal and child health by providing immunization and safe delivery practices.
(R) The RCH Program was launched to integrate family planning, maternal health, and child survival services into a unified initiative.

1103 / 1125

Category: Social responsibility

1103. (A) Government initiatives like the Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) Programmes are essential for achieving reproductive health in society.
(R) These initiatives provide access to family planning services and maternal care, addressing key aspects of reproductive health.

1104 / 1125

Category: Emotional & behavioral stability

1104. (A) Emotional stability ensures individuals make informed decisions about reproductive health without being influenced by societal taboos.
(R) Counseling and education help dispel myths and misconceptions, leading to better emotional and behavioral stability regarding reproductive health.

1105 / 1125

Category: Healthy reproductive organs

1105. (A) Proper functioning of reproductive organs includes physical and emotional well-being, not just absence of disease.
(R) Reproductive health encompasses emotional and behavioral aspects along with normal physiological functioning.

1106 / 1125

Category: Importance

1106. (A) Reproductive health education is essential for reducing maternal mortality rates.
(R) Educated individuals are more likely to seek timely medical care during pregnancy and childbirth.

1107 / 1125

Category: Components: physical, mental, social well-being

1107. (A) Mental well-being in reproductive health includes freedom from coercion and violence in reproductive choices.
(R) Social well-being ensures access to education and information for making informed reproductive decisions.

1108 / 1125

Category: WHO definition

1108. (A) According to the WHO, reproductive health includes emotional and social well-being in all aspects of reproduction.
(R) Emotional and social well-being ensures individuals can make informed decisions about family planning and safe sexual practices.

1109 / 1125

Category: Reproductive Health — Meaning & Scope

1109. (A) Reproductive health includes the ability to have a satisfying and safe sex life.
(R) Reproductive health is defined as complete physical, mental, and social well-being in all aspects of reproduction.

1110 / 1125

Category: Legal measures (sex determination ban, MTP regulation)

1110. (A) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is legally permitted in India up to 24 weeks under specific conditions.
(R) The MTP Act, 1971 allows termination of pregnancy if continuation poses a risk to the mother or the child.

1111 / 1125

Category: Counselling for reproductive health

1111. (A) Reproductive health counselling helps in making informed choices about family planning.
(R) It provides accurate information and dispels myths related to reproductive health.

1112 / 1125

Category: Maternal & child healthcare

1112. (A) Post-natal care ensures the health of both mother and child after childbirth.
(R) Post-natal care includes immunization programs and nutritional support for the child.

1113 / 1125

Category: Sex education

1113. (A) Sex education helps in reducing myths and misconceptions about sex-related aspects among young individuals.
(R) Proper sex education provides accurate information about reproductive health, safe sexual practices, and sexually transmitted infections.

1114 / 1125

Category: Key Strategies

1114. (A) Providing accurate information about reproductive health through awareness programs helps in reducing myths and misconceptions related to sex and reproduction.

(R) Awareness programs educate individuals, especially adolescents, about safe sexual practices, STDs, and family planning methods.

1115 / 1125

Category: Awareness & education (schools, media, NGOs)

1115. (A) School education plays a crucial role in spreading awareness about reproductive health.
(R) Schools provide structured environments where accurate information about puberty, menstrual hygiene, and safe sexual practices can be systematically taught.

1116 / 1125

Category: RCH (Reproductive & Child Health) initiative

1116. (A) The RCH initiative in India aims to provide family planning services as part of maternal and child health care.
(R) Family planning is essential for controlling population growth and ensuring reproductive health.

1117 / 1125

Category: Family Planning programme

1117. (A) The use of condoms is considered a barrier method of contraception.
(R) Condoms prevent the entry of sperm into the female reproductive tract.

1118 / 1125

Category: National Programs

1118. (A) The Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) aims to reduce maternal and infant mortality by promoting institutional deliveries.
(R) Institutional deliveries ensure access to skilled birth attendants and emergency medical care.

1119 / 1125

Category: Social responsibility

1119. (A) Educating couples about family planning methods is an important aspect of social responsibility in reproductive health.
(R) Education helps individuals make informed choices regarding family size and birth control, which contributes to a reproductively healthy society.

1120 / 1125

Category: Emotional & behavioral stability

1120. (A) Emotional and behavioral stability is an essential component of reproductive health.
(R) It promotes responsible sexual behavior, helps in managing emotions related to sex, and prevents STDs and unwanted pregnancies.

1121 / 1125

Category: Healthy reproductive organs

1121. (A) A person with physically and functionally normal reproductive organs is considered reproductively healthy.
(R) According to WHO, reproductive health includes physical, emotional, behavioural, and social well-being in all aspects of reproduction.

1122 / 1125

Category: Importance

1122. (A) Reproductive health includes physical, mental, and social well-being related to the reproductive system.
(R) It ensures individuals can make informed choices about reproduction without discrimination.

1123 / 1125

Category: Components: physical, mental, social well-being

1123. (A) Reproductive health includes social well-being, which ensures equal rights for men and women in reproductive decisions.
(R) Social well-being in reproductive health aims to eliminate gender discrimination.

1124 / 1125

Category: WHO definition

1124. (A) According to the WHO, reproductive health includes the freedom to decide if, when, and how often to reproduce.

(R) Reproductive health encompasses physical, mental, and social well-being in all matters related to the reproductive system.

1125 / 1125

Category: Reproductive Health — Meaning & Scope

1125. (A) Reproductive health includes physical, emotional, behavioural, and social well-being in all aspects of reproduction.
(R) According to WHO, a reproductively healthy society requires normal reproductive organ functions as well as proper emotional and behavioural interactions.

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