Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Principles and Processes of Biotechnology

This quiz on ICSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 – Principles and Processes of Biotechnology is designed to assess your understanding of the fundamental concepts and applications of modern biotechnology. It covers key topics such as genetic engineering, cloning vectors, recombinant DNA technology, restriction enzymes, PCR, gene transfer techniques, and the role of host organisms in gene expression. The questions highlight both conceptual clarity and process-oriented knowledge, helping students strengthen their grasp on how biological systems are manipulated for practical benefits in medicine, agriculture, research, and industry. This quiz will support exam readiness by reinforcing critical thinking and scientific reasoning skills related to biotechnology.

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Category: National Biotechnology Regulatory Authority

1. Which legislation governs the use of recombinant DNA technology in India?

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Category: National Biotechnology Regulatory Authority

2. What is the primary purpose of a biosafety protocol in biotechnology research?

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Category: National Biotechnology Regulatory Authority

3. Which body in India oversees the approval of genetically modified crops?

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Category: GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee)

4. Why does GEAC regulate human cloning research in India?

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Category: GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee)

5. What is a major ethical concern regarding genetic screening for diseases in employment purposes?

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Category: GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee)

6. A researcher wants to introduce a genetically modified crop resistant to pests in India. Which of the following steps is essential according to GEAC regulations before public release?

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Category: Regulatory Bodies

7. A research institute plans to conduct human cloning experiments for medical purposes. Which regulatory and ethical challenge is MOST relevant to this scenario?

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Category: Regulatory Bodies

8. GEAC has rejected a proposal for field trials of a genetically modified crop due to potential ecological risks. What is the PRIMARY role of GEAC in this scenario?

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Category: Regulatory Bodies

9. A biotechnology company develops a prenatal genetic screening test that identifies potential behavioral patterns in fetuses. Which ethical issue is MOST likely to arise from the misuse of this technology?

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Category: Ethical Concerns

10. Why is the establishment of regulatory bodies like the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) crucial in genetic engineering?

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Category: Ethical Concerns

11. What is the most valid ethical argument against human cloning from a societal perspective?

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Category: Ethical Concerns

12. Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies ethical concerns related to genetic discrimination in employment?

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Category: Biosafety Levels

13. In a lab handling Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which of the following PPE combinations would be MOST appropriate given the biosafety level requirements?

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Category: Biosafety Levels

14. A research facility is studying a highly pathogenic virus that causes fatal diseases with no available treatment. The lab requires full-body, air-supplied positive pressure suits, multiple security checks, and HEPA-filtered exhaust air. Which ethical consideration is MOST critical for ensuring responsible research in this facility?

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Category: Biosafety Levels

15. A laboratory is handling a bacterial culture known to cause mild infections in humans but does not spread through aerosols. The lab has implemented restricted access, biosafety cabinets for aerosol-generating procedures, and requires gloves and lab coats. However, the decontamination process involves using a solution that follows the reaction: $\text{NaOCl} + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{HOCl} + \text{NaOH}$. What biosafety level is this lab operating at?

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Category: Safety, Ethical, and Regulatory Issues

16. Prenatal genetic screening reveals a fetus has a 60% chance of developing a manageable genetic disorder. What ethical principle is most challenged when considering whether to disclose this information to prospective employers in the future?

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Category: Safety, Ethical, and Regulatory Issues

17. Which of the following best explains why human reproductive cloning is considered ethically controversial by organizations like GEAC?

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Category: Safety, Ethical, and Regulatory Issues

18. A genetic testing company offers predictive testing for late-onset neurological disorders to insurance companies without explicit consent from individuals. What is the primary ethical concern in this scenario?

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Category: National Biotechnology Regulatory Authority

19. What ethical concern arises when considering the socio-economic impacts of GMOs on small-scale farmers?

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Category: National Biotechnology Regulatory Authority

20. Which principle ensures that potential risks of GMOs are evaluated before their release into the environment?

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Category: National Biotechnology Regulatory Authority

21. What is the primary responsibility of the National Biotechnology Regulatory Authority (NBRA)?

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Category: GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee)

22. What is a major societal concern associated with human cloning?

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Category: GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee)

23. Which of the following ethical issues is directly associated with genetic screening?

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Category: GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee)

24. What is the primary role of the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) in India?

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Category: Regulatory Bodies

25. What is a major risk associated with the manipulation of genes in genetic engineering?

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Category: Regulatory Bodies

26. What is an ethical concern associated with prenatal genetic diagnosis in the context of genetic engineering?

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Category: Regulatory Bodies

27. Which regulatory body in India is responsible for approving the release of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) for public use?

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Category: Ethical Concerns

28. What is the primary role of the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) in India?

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Category: Ethical Concerns

29. Why could knowledge about an individual's genes be considered unethical?

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Category: Ethical Concerns

30. What is a major ethical concern regarding the cloning of humans?

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Category: Biosafety Levels

31. According to the risk assessment formula provided in the syllabus, if a pathogen has high pathogenicity, high transmissibility, and no available treatment, what is the overall risk?

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Category: Biosafety Levels

32. What is one ethical concern associated with the use of high-risk pathogens in research?

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Category: Biosafety Levels

33. Which of the following pathogens would require Biosafety Level 3 (BSL-3) containment?

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Category: Safety, Ethical, and Regulatory Issues

34. Why is human cloning considered ethically controversial?

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Category: Safety, Ethical, and Regulatory Issues

35. Which organization in India evaluates the safety and validity of genetically modified organisms?

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Category: Safety, Ethical, and Regulatory Issues

36. What is a major ethical concern related to genetic screening for diseases?

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Category: GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee)

37. How can prenatal diagnosis using genetic screening be ethically beneficial?

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Category: GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee)

38. What is the primary role of the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) in India?

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Category: GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee)

39. What is a significant ethical concern regarding genetic engineering?

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Category: Regulatory Bodies

40. Why are regulatory bodies like GEAC important in genetic engineering?

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Category: Regulatory Bodies

41. Which of the following is an ethical concern related to genetic engineering?

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Category: Regulatory Bodies

42. What is the primary function of the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) in India?

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Category: Ethical Concerns

43. Why is consent important when using an individual's genetic information?

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Category: Ethical Concerns

44. Which organization evaluates genetically modified (GM) research for public safety in India?

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Category: Ethical Concerns

45. What is a significant ethical concern related to the identification of genetic diseases?

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Category: Biosafety Levels

46. Which of the following features is mandatory in a Biosafety Level 4 (BSL-4) laboratory?

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Category: Biosafety Levels

47. What type of biosafety cabinet is typically used in a BSL-2 laboratory for procedures that generate aerosols?

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Category: Biosafety Levels

48. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for Biosafety Level 1 (BSL-1) laboratories?

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Category: Safety, Ethical, and Regulatory Issues

49. Which organization evaluates the validity of genetically modified (GM) research in India?

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Category: Safety, Ethical, and Regulatory Issues

50. What ethical issue arises when an individual's genetic information is used without consent?

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Category: Safety, Ethical, and Regulatory Issues

51. Which of the following is a major ethical concern related to human cloning?

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Category: Design Features

52. What role does the impeller play in a simple stirred-tank bioreactor?

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Category: Design Features

53. Which feature of a bioreactor directly ensures that the culture can be monitored and adjusted during the production phase?

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Category: Design Features

54. In a sparged stirred-tank bioreactor, what is the primary purpose of entrainment bubbles?

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Category: Bioreactors

55. Why are small volume cultures not suitable for industrial-scale production of biotechnological products?

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Category: Bioreactors

56. After the biosynthetic stage in a bioreactor, what critical step ensures the final product meets quality standards before marketing?

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Category: Bioreactors

57. In a stirred-tank bioreactor, which of the following systems is primarily responsible for maintaining uniform oxygen availability throughout the culture medium?

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Category: Aseptic Techniques

58. A lab working with BSL-2 organisms reports frequent glove tears during subculturing. Which combination of PPE adjustments would mitigate this risk while maintaining asepsis?

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Category: Aseptic Techniques

59. In preparing agar plates, persistent fungal contamination occurs despite using sterilized media. What critical step might have been overlooked in the aseptic protocol?

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Category: Aseptic Techniques

60. A bioreactor setup requires contamination-free conditions. Which of the following sterilization techniques ensures the highest level of sterility when combined with laminar airflow for continuous culture maintenance?

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Category: Culture Techniques in Biotechnology

61. A biotech company scales up animal cell culture for monoclonal antibody production but observes reduced cell viability. The culture medium contains serum, growth factors, and standard nutrients. What additional component is most critical to maintain viability at an industrial scale?

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Category: Culture Techniques in Biotechnology

62. In a plant tissue culture lab, a student observes fungal contamination in their callus cultures despite autoclaving the media at $121^\circ C$ for 15 minutes. Which of the following could most likely explain this issue?

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Category: Culture Techniques in Biotechnology

63. A researcher prepares LB broth using the standard formula: $10\ g$ tryptone, $5\ g$ yeast extract, and $10\ g$ NaCl per liter. If they adjust the pH to 6.8 instead of the optimal range ($7.0-7.4$) for bacterial growth, what is the most likely outcome?

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Category: Design Features

64. In a continuous culture system, what happens to maintain steady-state conditions?

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Category: Design Features

65. What distinguishes a sparged stirred-tank bioreactor from a standard stirred-tank bioreactor?

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Category: Design Features

66. Which of the following is NOT a critical parameter controlled in a bioreactor to ensure optimal growth conditions?

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Category: Bioreactors

67. What does downstream processing in bioreactor operations involve?

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Category: Bioreactors

68. What is the primary purpose of a stirrer in a stirred-tank bioreactor?

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Category: Bioreactors

69. Which of the following is NOT a key feature of a bioreactor?

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Category: Aseptic Techniques

70. What is the primary purpose of a laminar airflow hood in aseptic techniques?

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Category: Aseptic Techniques

71. When transferring microbial cultures, what should be done to maintain sterility?

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Category: Aseptic Techniques

72. Which method is NOT suitable for sterilizing heat-sensitive culture media?

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Category: Culture Techniques in Biotechnology

73. What is the purpose of downstream processing in biotechnology?

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Category: Culture Techniques in Biotechnology

74. Which of the following systems is NOT typically part of a standard stirred-tank bioreactor?

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Category: Culture Techniques in Biotechnology

75. What is the primary advantage of using a continuous culture system over batch culture for protein production?

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Category: Design Features

76. After biosynthesis in a bioreactor, what is the first major step in downstream processing?

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Category: Design Features

77. What does $k_L a$ represent in the oxygen transfer rate equation $OTR = k_L a (C^* - C_L)$?

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Category: Design Features

78. Which component of a stirred-tank bioreactor ensures uniform distribution of oxygen and nutrients?

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Category: Bioreactors

79. What does $C^*$ represent in the oxygen transfer rate formula $k_L a (C^* - C_L)$?

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Category: Bioreactors

80. Which component ensures even mixing and oxygen distribution in a stirred-tank bioreactor?

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Category: Bioreactors

81. What is the primary function of a bioreactor in biotechnology?

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Category: Aseptic Techniques

82. What is the main objective of downstream processing in biotechnology?

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Category: Aseptic Techniques

83. Which of the following components is NOT typically found in a bioreactor?

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Category: Aseptic Techniques

84. What is the primary purpose of aseptic techniques in biotechnology?

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Category: Culture Techniques in Biotechnology

85. What is the temperature and pressure used in autoclaving to sterilize media and equipment?

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Category: Culture Techniques in Biotechnology

86. What is the primary purpose of plant tissue culture in biotechnology?

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Category: Culture Techniques in Biotechnology

87. Which of the following is commonly used as a growth medium for bacterial cultures?

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Category: Reporter Genes

88. Which feature of pBR322 ensures that the plasmid can replicate independently within the host E. coli cell, even after the insertion of foreign DNA?

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Category: Reporter Genes

89. In the pBR322 vector, if the foreign DNA is inserted into the Pst I site within the ampicillin resistance gene ($amp^R$), what will be the phenotype of the transformed E. coli cells when grown on media containing tetracycline and ampicillin?

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Category: Reporter Genes

90. A researcher ligates a foreign DNA fragment into the Bam HI site of the pBR322 plasmid. Which of the following statements correctly describes the expected outcome when the transformed E. coli cells are plated on media containing ampicillin and tetracycline?

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Category: Blue–White Screening

91. When designing a new cloning vector for Blue–White screening, why is the multiple cloning site (MCS) strategically placed within the $\textit{lacZ}$ gene rather than outside it?

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Category: Blue–White Screening

92. A student plates transformed $\textit{E. coli}$ cells on LB agar containing X-gal and IPTG, but observes faint blue colonies instead of distinct white ones for recombinants. What modification to the experimental protocol would MOST effectively improve the color contrast?

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Category: Blue–White Screening

93. In a Blue–White screening experiment using pUC19 vector, a researcher observes unexpected blue colonies even after successful restriction digestion and ligation with the insert DNA. Which of the following could NOT be a plausible explanation for this observation?

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Category: Selectable Markers

94. A plant transformation experiment uses a plasmid containing both a herbicide resistance gene (selectable marker) and GUS reporter gene. What would be observed for successfully transformed calli when grown on medium containing the herbicide and X-gluc substrate?

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Category: Selectable Markers

95. In a blue-white selection system using lacZ$\alpha$ complementation, what would be observed if a non-recombinant plasmid transforms E. coli cells grown on X-gal medium?

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Category: Selectable Markers

96. A researcher ligates foreign DNA into the BamHI site of the tetracycline resistance gene in pBR322. After transformation, all colonies grow on ampicillin plates, but some fail to grow on tetracycline plates. What is the most likely genotype of the colonies that grow only on ampicillin plates?

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Category: Selection and Screening of Recombinants

97. A scientist wants to clone a gene into a plasmid vector that has antibiotic resistance genes for ampicillin ($amp^R$) and kanamycin ($kan^R$). The restriction enzyme $EcoRI$ cuts within the $kan^R$ gene. If the scientist ligates the foreign DNA into the $EcoRI$ site, what will be the phenotype of the recombinants when plated on media containing both antibiotics?

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Category: Selection and Screening of Recombinants

98. A researcher uses a pUC vector containing the $lacZ$ gene for cloning. The foreign DNA is inserted into the multiple cloning site (MCS) within the $lacZ$ gene. How can the researcher distinguish between recombinants and non-recombinants?

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Category: Selection and Screening of Recombinants

99. In a recombinant DNA experiment, a plasmid vector contains the $amp^R$ and $tet^R$ genes. A foreign DNA is inserted into the $BamHI$ site of the $tet^R$ gene. Which of the following statements correctly describes the selection and screening process for recombinants?

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Category: Reporter Genes

100. Which feature of pBR322 allows for the selection of recombinants when foreign DNA is inserted into the Bam HI site of the tetracycline resistance gene?

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Category: Reporter Genes

101. In blue-white selection, what happens if a plasmid contains an inserted foreign DNA fragment within the multiple cloning site (MCS)?

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Category: Reporter Genes

102. What is the primary function of a selectable marker in recombinant DNA technology?

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Category: Blue–White Screening

103. Why is the multiple cloning site (MCS) located within the $\textit{lacZ}$ gene in the pUC vector?

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Category: Blue–White Screening

104. What would happen if the $\textit{E. coli}$ host strain used in Blue–White Screening has a functional $\beta$-galactosidase gene in its genome?

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Category: Blue–White Screening

105. In Blue–White Screening, what is the role of IPTG in the screening process?

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Category: Selectable Markers

106. Which of the following best describes the role of a reporter gene in genetic transformation?

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Category: Selectable Markers

107. If a foreign DNA is inserted into the Bam HI site of the tetracycline resistance gene in the pBR322 vector, which of the following statements is correct?

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Category: Selectable Markers

108. In the context of recombinant DNA technology, what is the primary purpose of a selectable marker?

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Category: Selection and Screening of Recombinants

109. What is the primary role of selectable markers in recombinant DNA technology?

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Category: Selection and Screening of Recombinants

110. In the pBR322 vector, if foreign DNA is inserted into the Bam HI site of the tetracycline resistance gene, what will be the growth pattern of recombinants on media containing ampicillin and tetracycline?

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Category: Reporter Genes

111. Which of the following statements is true regarding reporter genes in recombinant DNA technology?

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Category: Reporter Genes

112. In the pBR322 vector, if a foreign DNA is inserted into the $BamHI$ site of the tetracycline resistance gene ($tet^r$), what will be the phenotype of the recombinant plasmid?

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Category: Reporter Genes

113. What is the primary purpose of a selectable marker in recombinant DNA technology?

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Category: Blue–White Screening

114. What is the function of IPTG in blue–white screening?

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Category: Blue–White Screening

115. Which type of colonies indicate successful insertion of foreign DNA in blue–white screening?

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Category: Blue–White Screening

116. What is the role of X-gal in blue–white screening?

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Category: Selectable Markers

117. Which of the following statements correctly describes a reporter gene in recombinant DNA technology?

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Category: Selectable Markers

118. In the pBR322 vector, if a foreign DNA is inserted into the $Bam HI$ site of the tetracycline resistance gene, what will be the phenotype of the recombinant plasmid on a medium containing ampicillin and tetracycline?

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Category: Selectable Markers

119. What is the primary purpose of a selectable marker in recombinant DNA technology?

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Category: Selection and Screening of Recombinants

120. What is the primary role of selectable markers in recombinant DNA technology?

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Category: Selection and Screening of Recombinants

121. How are recombinants selected in blue-white screening using pUC vectors?

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Category: Selection and Screening of Recombinants

122. Which statement is correct about the selection of recombinants using antibiotic resistance markers in pBR322?

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Category: Insertion of rDNA into Host

123. Which of the following methods does NOT require the use of competent cells for introducing recombinant DNA into host cells?

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Category: Insertion of rDNA into Host

124. In plant genetic engineering, the Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is widely used. What is the primary role of the T-DNA region in this process?

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Category: Insertion of rDNA into Host

125. A researcher wants to introduce a recombinant DNA construct into mammalian cells. The construct is large >100 KB and requires stable integration into the host genome. Which method would be most suitable for this purpose?

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Category: Ligation of DNA Fragments

126. When performing a ligation reaction with E. coli DNA ligase, which condition would result in complete failure of the reaction?

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Category: Ligation of DNA Fragments

127. If a vector is cut with EcoRI ($G\downarrow AATTC$) and a foreign DNA is cut with HindIII ($A\downarrow AGCTT$), what will happen during attempted ligation with T4 DNA ligase?

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Category: Ligation of DNA Fragments

128. A researcher has DNA fragments produced by two different restriction enzymes: one creates 5' overhangs with sequence $AATT$, while another creates blunt ends. Which statement correctly describes their ligation efficiency when using T4 DNA ligase?

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Category: Steps in rDNA Formation

129. A researcher ligates a DNA fragment into a plasmid vector using DNA ligase. Which component of the vector ensures that only transformed host cells grow on selective media?

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Category: Steps in rDNA Formation

130. During agarose gel electrophoresis, a DNA fragment of 500 bp and another of 1000 bp are loaded into the gel. Which statement accurately describes their migration?

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Category: Steps in rDNA Formation

131. In the process of isolating genetic material for recombinant DNA technology, why is it necessary to use enzymes like lysozyme, cellulase, and protease?

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Category: DNA Cloning and Recombinant DNA Technology

132. What is the key difference between a genomic library and a cDNA library?

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Category: DNA Cloning and Recombinant DNA Technology

133. Which vector is commonly used for cloning large DNA fragments (100–300 kb) due to its high stability and copy number control in bacterial hosts?

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Category: DNA Cloning and Recombinant DNA Technology

134. Which of the following restriction enzymes produces sticky ends with a 5' overhang when it cuts the DNA sequence $\text{5'-G\underline{AATTC}-3'}$?

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Category: Insertion of rDNA into Host

135. Which feature of Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes (BACs) makes them suitable for cloning large DNA fragments?

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Category: Insertion of rDNA into Host

136. What role does the Ti plasmid play in Agrobacterium tumefaciens-mediated gene transfer into plants?

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Category: Insertion of rDNA into Host

137. Which of the following best describes the principle behind electroporation for introducing recombinant DNA into host cells?

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Category: Ligation of DNA Fragments

138. Why is T4 DNA ligase commonly used in molecular cloning experiments instead of E. coli DNA ligase?

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Category: Ligation of DNA Fragments

139. A researcher cuts a plasmid vector and an insert DNA with EcoRI, which produces sticky ends. What ensures proper annealing before ligation?

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Category: Ligation of DNA Fragments

140. Which of the following describes the primary function of DNA ligase in recombinant DNA technology?

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Category: Steps in rDNA Formation

141. In a PCR cycle, what is the function of Taq polymerase during the extension step?

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Category: Steps in rDNA Formation

142. Which of the following steps is crucial after cutting a DNA molecule with restriction enzymes to isolate a specific segment?

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Category: Steps in rDNA Formation

143. What is the purpose of using ribonuclease during DNA isolation?

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Category: DNA Cloning and Recombinant DNA Technology

144. Which method involves transferring recombinant DNA into host cells by using a high-velocity microprojectile coated with DNA?

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Category: DNA Cloning and Recombinant DNA Technology

145. What is the recognition sequence for the restriction enzyme EcoRI?

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Category: DNA Cloning and Recombinant DNA Technology

146. Which of the following is a feature of a good cloning vector?

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Category: Insertion of rDNA into Host

147. Which artificial chromosome is derived from F-plasmids and can carry large DNA segments (100–300 kb) in E. coli?

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Category: Insertion of rDNA into Host

148. What method involves creating temporary pores in the cell membrane using electric pulses for DNA uptake?

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Category: Insertion of rDNA into Host

149. Which bacterium is used to transfer foreign DNA into plants using the tumor-inducing plasmid?

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Category: Ligation of DNA Fragments

150. Which of the following is NOT a feature of an ideal cloning vector?

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Category: Ligation of DNA Fragments

151. What type of DNA ends are produced when the restriction enzyme $EcoRI$ cuts the DNA sequence $GAATTC$?

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Category: Ligation of DNA Fragments

152. Which enzyme is commonly used to join DNA fragments during recombinant DNA technology?

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Category: Steps in rDNA Formation

153. Which temperature is typically used for the annealing step in PCR?

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Category: Steps in rDNA Formation

154. What is the function of restriction endonucleases in recombinant DNA technology?

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Category: Steps in rDNA Formation

155. Which enzyme is used to break down bacterial cell walls during DNA isolation?

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Category: DNA Cloning and Recombinant DNA Technology

156. What type of vector is commonly used for cloning large DNA fragments in yeast cells?

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Category: DNA Cloning and Recombinant DNA Technology

157. Which of the following enzymes is commonly used to cut DNA at specific sequences in recombinant DNA technology?

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Category: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

158. What is the primary reason for using specific primers in PCR for genetic fingerprinting?

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Category: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

159. After 20 cycles of PCR, starting with a single DNA template molecule, how many amplified DNA molecules would theoretically be produced?

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Category: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

160. In a PCR reaction, if the annealing temperature is set too high, which of the following is most likely to occur?

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Category: Amplification of Gene of Interest

161. In a PCR experiment, contamination introduced 10 additional template DNA molecules at cycle 15. If the reaction runs for 30 total cycles, what is the approximate ratio of amplified products from original templates versus contaminant templates?

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Category: Amplification of Gene of Interest

162. A researcher is setting up a PCR reaction but forgot to add Taq polymerase. The reaction mixture contains DNA template, primers, and dNTPs. After running 30 cycles, how many copies of the target DNA sequence will be produced?

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Category: Cutting of DNA

163. Which type of restriction enzyme is most commonly used in genetic engineering due to its ability to cleave DNA at specific recognition sites?

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Category: Cutting of DNA

164. Which of the following sequences is a palindromic sequence recognized by a restriction enzyme?

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Category: Cutting of DNA

165. A DNA molecule is cut using the restriction enzyme EcoRI, which recognizes the sequence $5'$ GAATTC $3'$. Which of the following sequences represents the sticky end produced after cleavage?

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Category: Isolation of Genetic Material (DNA)

166. A researcher wants to clone a 200 kb human DNA fragment into a bacterial host. Which vector would be most appropriate for this purpose and why?

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Category: Isolation of Genetic Material (DNA)

167. In a polymerase chain reaction (PCR), if the initial template DNA concentration is 100 ng and undergoes 30 cycles of amplification, what will be the approximate final concentration of the amplified DNA, assuming 100% efficiency?

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Category: Isolation of Genetic Material (DNA)

168. During the isolation of genomic DNA from plant cells, cellulase is used to break down the cell wall. If a restriction enzyme with recognition sequence GAATTC is used to cut the isolated DNA, what will be the nature of the sticky ends produced?

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Category: Techniques Used in Genetic Engineering

169. When using $Agrobacterium tumefaciens$ for plant transformation, which component of the Ti plasmid is responsible for transferring the T-DNA region into the host plant genome?

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Category: Techniques Used in Genetic Engineering

170. A scientist is constructing a cDNA library from human liver cells. Which of the following steps is essential for creating a functional cDNA library that includes only the expressed genes?

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Category: Techniques Used in Genetic Engineering

171. A researcher wants to create a recombinant DNA molecule using $EcoRI$ and $BamHI$ restriction enzymes. The recognition sequence for $EcoRI$ is 5'-GAATTC-3' and for $BamHI$ is 5'-GGATCC-3'. If both enzymes cut at their respective recognition sites, which of the following DNA fragments cannot be ligated together?

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Category: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

172. If you start with one DNA template and perform 5 cycles of PCR, how many copies of the DNA will be produced?

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Category: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

173. During the denaturation step of PCR, what happens to the DNA template?

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Category: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

174. What is the purpose of primers in a PCR reaction?

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Category: Amplification of Gene of Interest

175. Which of the following is NOT a direct application of PCR?

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Category: Amplification of Gene of Interest

176. What happens during the annealing step in a PCR cycle?

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Category: Amplification of Gene of Interest

177. Which component of the PCR reaction ensures that the amplification process can occur at high temperatures?

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Category: Cutting of DNA

178. What feature distinguishes sticky ends produced by restriction enzymes from blunt ends?

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Category: Cutting of DNA

179. Which type of restriction enzyme cuts DNA at random sites far from the recognition sequence?

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Category: Cutting of DNA

180. Which of the following statements is true regarding restriction enzymes?

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Category: Isolation of Genetic Material (DNA)

181. Which step in PCR involves heating the DNA to separate its strands?

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Category: Isolation of Genetic Material (DNA)

182. What is the purpose of staining DNA with ethidium bromide during gel electrophoresis?

183 / 1064

Category: Isolation of Genetic Material (DNA)

183. Which enzyme is used to remove RNA from the isolated genetic material during DNA purification?

184 / 1064

Category: Techniques Used in Genetic Engineering

184. Which of the following is a vectorless method of gene transfer in plants?

185 / 1064

Category: Techniques Used in Genetic Engineering

185. What is the primary purpose of the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) in genetic engineering?

186 / 1064

Category: Techniques Used in Genetic Engineering

186. Which of the following statements about restriction enzymes is correct?

187 / 1064

Category: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

187. Which of the following is NOT an application of PCR?

188 / 1064

Category: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

188. What is the purpose of the denaturation step in PCR?

189 / 1064

Category: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

189. What is the role of primers in a PCR reaction?

190 / 1064

Category: Amplification of Gene of Interest

190. What is one primary application of PCR in genetic engineering?

191 / 1064

Category: Amplification of Gene of Interest

191. Which step in PCR involves heating the DNA to separate the two strands?

192 / 1064

Category: Amplification of Gene of Interest

192. Which component of PCR provides the short DNA sequences that are complementary to the 3' ends of the target DNA?

193 / 1064

Category: Cutting of DNA

193. What type of ends are produced when a restriction enzyme cuts DNA between the same two bases on opposite strands, leaving single-stranded overhangs?

194 / 1064

Category: Cutting of DNA

194. Which of the following represents a palindromic DNA sequence?

195 / 1064

Category: Cutting of DNA

195. What is the primary function of restriction enzymes in genetic engineering?

196 / 1064

Category: Isolation of Genetic Material (DNA)

196. Which stain is commonly used to visualize DNA under UV light after gel electrophoresis?

197 / 1064

Category: Isolation of Genetic Material (DNA)

197. What process involves scooping out fine threads of DNA from a suspension after adding chilled ethanol?

198 / 1064

Category: Isolation of Genetic Material (DNA)

198. Which enzyme is used to break down bacterial cell walls during DNA isolation?

199 / 1064

Category: Techniques Used in Genetic Engineering

199. Which component of PCR provides the short nucleotide sequences necessary for initiating DNA synthesis?

200 / 1064

Category: Techniques Used in Genetic Engineering

200. What is the primary function of restriction enzymes in genetic engineering?

201 / 1064

Category: Techniques Used in Genetic Engineering

201. Which enzyme is commonly used to break down bacterial cell walls during DNA isolation?

202 / 1064

Category: Liposome-mediated transfer

202. In a liposome-mediated gene transfer experiment on *Nicotiana tabacum*, if endocytosis is inhibited, which outcome would most likely occur?

203 / 1064

Category: Liposome-mediated transfer

203. Which chemical component is crucial for stabilizing liposomes and ensuring high tolerance to nucleases during DNA entrapment?

204 / 1064

Category: Liposome-mediated transfer

204. During liposome-mediated gene transfer in plant protoplasts, which of the following mechanisms does NOT contribute to DNA entry into the cell?

205 / 1064

Category: Gene gun (biolistic method)

205. After successful DNA delivery via the gene gun, what critical step ensures the regeneration of transformed plants?

206 / 1064

Category: Gene gun (biolistic method)

206. Which crop transformation scenario would most likely require the use of a gene gun instead of Agrobacterium-mediated transformation?

207 / 1064

Category: Gene gun (biolistic method)

207. What is the primary reason for using tungsten or gold particles coated with DNA in the gene gun method?

208 / 1064

Category: Microinjection

208. In which scenario would microinjection be the LEAST suitable method for DNA delivery?

209 / 1064

Category: Microinjection

209. If a genetic engineering experiment requires stable integration of foreign DNA into rye pollen grains, what would be the primary disadvantage of using microinjection compared to vector-mediated methods?

210 / 1064

Category: Microinjection

210. A researcher is using microinjection to introduce recombinant DNA into tobacco protoplasts. Which of the following best describes why microinjection is preferred over other transformation methods for this specific application?

211 / 1064

Category: Electroporation

211. Which step immediately follows the resealing of the plasma membrane after electroporation?

212 / 1064

Category: Electroporation

212. Why must protoplasts be suspended in an electroporation buffer containing foreign DNA before applying electrical pulses?

213 / 1064

Category: Electroporation

213. What is the primary role of high-voltage pulses in electroporation?

214 / 1064

Category: Calcium chloride treatment

214. In the calcium phosphate precipitation method, how does calcium phosphate ($Ca_3(PO_4)_2$) aid in DNA delivery into the host cell?

215 / 1064

Category: Calcium chloride treatment

215. During transformation, why is a brief heat shock (37°C - 45°C) applied after treating bacterial cells with calcium chloride at low temperature?

216 / 1064

Category: Calcium chloride treatment

216. What is the primary role of calcium chloride ($CaCl_2$) in making bacterial cells competent for transformation?

217 / 1064

Category: Methods to Make Cells Competent

217. What is the primary advantage of using liposomes for DNA delivery compared to direct injection methods?

218 / 1064

Category: Methods to Make Cells Competent

218. Which technique uses microscopic gold or tungsten particles to deliver DNA into cells by accelerating them through a gene gun?

219 / 1064

Category: Methods to Make Cells Competent

219. Which method of making cells competent involves the use of calcium ions and heat shock to facilitate DNA uptake, and is most commonly used for bacterial transformation?

220 / 1064

Category: Known genetics

220. During PCR amplification of a target DNA sequence, the primer annealing temperature is set too high. What is the most probable outcome of this error?

221 / 1064

Category: Known genetics

221. A scientist aims to clone a human gene into a plasmid vector and express it in $E. coli$. However, the expressed protein lacks post-translational modifications found in humans. What is the most likely reason for this observation?

222 / 1064

Category: Known genetics

222. A researcher wants to create a recombinant DNA molecule using a restriction enzyme that generates sticky ends and DNA ligase. The restriction enzyme $EcoRI$ cuts at the sequence $GAATTC$. If the researcher uses two DNA fragments with complementary sticky ends, what ensures proper joining of these fragments by DNA ligase?

223 / 1064

Category: Fast replication

223. What would happen if ethidium bromide is omitted from agarose gel electrophoresis after PCR?

224 / 1064

Category: Fast replication

224. During PCR, why is Taq polymerase preferred over other DNA polymerases?

225 / 1064

Category: Fast replication

225. A scientist starts with 5 copies of a target DNA sequence and performs PCR for 30 cycles. How many copies of the DNA will be produced at the end of the reaction?

226 / 1064

Category: Easy to culture

226. Why is Saccharomyces cerevisiae often chosen over E. coli for expressing human genes despite slower growth rates?

227 / 1064

Category: Easy to culture

227. A researcher wants to ensure stable maintenance of a recombinant plasmid in a bacterial host. Which feature of the plasmid is MOST critical for this purpose?

228 / 1064

Category: Easy to culture

228. Which of the following properties makes E. coli a preferred host organism for genetic engineering despite its limitations in eukaryotic protein processing?

229 / 1064

Category: Competent Host (Microbial Host)

229. After transforming competent E. coli cells with a plasmid containing an antibiotic resistance gene, the cells are incubated in nutrient broth for 1 hour before plating on selective media. What is the purpose of this recovery phase?

230 / 1064

Category: Competent Host (Microbial Host)

230. In an experiment, two batches of E. coli cells are made competent using different concentrations of $Ca^{2+}$. Batch A: 50 mM, Batch B: 100 mM. Which batch is expected to show higher transformation efficiency and why?

231 / 1064

Category: Competent Host (Microbial Host)

231. A researcher is preparing competent E. coli cells for transformation. The cells are treated with $Ca^{2+}$ at 4°C, followed by a brief heat shock at 42°C. What is the primary role of the divalent cation in this process?

232 / 1064

Category: Common Vectors Used

232. What triggers the transfer of T-DNA from *Agrobacterium tumefaciens* to the host plant genome during genetic transformation?

233 / 1064

Category: Common Vectors Used

233. In the pUC vector system, what happens if a foreign DNA fragment is successfully inserted into the lac Z gene?

234 / 1064

Category: Common Vectors Used

234. A plasmid vector contains the ampicillin resistance gene and tetracycline resistance gene. If a foreign DNA is inserted into the tetracycline resistance gene, which of the following will be observed when transformed bacteria are grown on media containing both antibiotics?

235 / 1064

Category: YACs (Yeast artificial chromosomes)

235. Which essential component(s) must a functional YAC contain to ensure proper replication and segregation in yeast cells during the Human Genome Project?

236 / 1064

Category: YACs (Yeast artificial chromosomes)

236. A researcher needs to clone a eukaryotic gene fragment spanning 800 kb. Which vector system would be most suitable for this purpose, considering size limitations and stability?

237 / 1064

Category: YACs (Yeast artificial chromosomes)

237. Which of the following features contributes to the instability of Yeast Artificial Chromosomes (YACs) compared to Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes (BACs)?

238 / 1064

Category: BACs (Bacterial artificial chromosomes)

238. Why are BACs preferred over YACs for large-scale genome sequencing projects like the Human Genome Project?

239 / 1064

Category: BACs (Bacterial artificial chromosomes)

239. A researcher observes that a BAC vector maintains a low copy number in $E. coli$. Which component is primarily responsible for this regulation?

240 / 1064

Category: BACs (Bacterial artificial chromosomes)

240. Which of the following components in a Bacterial Artificial Chromosome (BAC) ensures proper segregation during bacterial cell division?

241 / 1064

Category: Types of Vectors

241. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used to transfer genes into plants primarily because:

242 / 1064

Category: Types of Vectors

242. In a cloning experiment using pUC19, colonies appear white on X-gal medium. What does this indicate about the transformed cells?

243 / 1064

Category: Types of Vectors

243. A researcher wants to clone a large DNA fragment (~150 kb) and express it in bacterial cells. Which vector would be most suitable for this purpose considering stability and cloning efficiency?

244 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

244. In a blue-white selection experiment using pUC18, what would happen if the inserted foreign DNA does NOT disrupt the $\beta$-galactosidase gene?

245 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

245. A researcher wants to clone a large DNA fragment (~200 kb) into $E. coli$ while maintaining high copy numbers. Which vector would be most suitable for this purpose and why?

246 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

246. A recombinant plasmid is created by inserting a foreign DNA fragment at the BamHI site of the tetracycline resistance gene in pBR322. What would be the expected outcome when these transformants are plated on media containing both ampicillin and tetracycline?

247 / 1064

Category: Cloning Vectors

247. A scientist wants to clone a gene into a plasmid vector using EcoRI. The vector has a single EcoRI site in the tetracycline resistance gene. After ligation and transformation, how can they distinguish between recombinant and non-recombinant plasmids?

248 / 1064

Category: Cloning Vectors

248. Which of the following statements about Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes (BACs) is correct?

249 / 1064

Category: Cloning Vectors

249. A researcher is using a pUC vector with an ampicillin resistance gene and a lac Z gene for cloning. After transforming E. coli cells with the recombinant plasmid, they plate the cells on a medium containing ampicillin and X-gal. What will be observed for colonies that contain the recombinant plasmid?

250 / 1064

Category: Cleavage Patterns

250. If a Type II restriction enzyme cuts the DNA sequence $5'$ GAATTC $3'$ between G and A, what type of ends are produced after cleavage?

251 / 1064

Category: Cleavage Patterns

251. Which of the following correctly describes the components of the restriction enzyme $EcoRI$ as per standard naming conventions?

252 / 1064

Category: Cleavage Patterns

252. A researcher is analyzing the recognition sequence of a restriction enzyme and observes the following DNA sequence: $5'$ GGATCC $3'$. What will be the complementary strand's sequence if this is a palindrome?

253 / 1064

Category: Recognition Sequences

253. If Eco RI cleaves the DNA sequence $5'$ GAATTC $3'$, what will be the resulting fragments if it cuts between G and A on both strands?

254 / 1064

Category: Recognition Sequences

254. Which type of restriction enzyme is most suitable for gene manipulation due to its ability to produce predictable DNA fragments with sticky ends?

255 / 1064

Category: Recognition Sequences

255. A researcher is working with a restriction enzyme named Hind III. Which of the following correctly describes its origin and recognition sequence?

256 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

256. The restriction enzyme EcoRI cuts DNA at the sequence $5'$ GAATTC $3'$. If a linear DNA molecule is digested with EcoRI at two sites 500 bp apart, how many fragments are produced and what are their characteristics?

257 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

257. Which of the following best describes the origin of the restriction enzyme HindIII?

258 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

258. A restriction enzyme recognizes the palindromic sequence $5'$ GGATCC $3'$ and cuts between the first G and second G on each strand. What type of ends will this produce?

259 / 1064

Category: Discovery

259. A researcher observes an enzyme that cleaves DNA only at the terminal ends, releasing nucleotides one by one. Which of the following describes this enzyme's action?

260 / 1064

Category: Discovery

260. Which of the following statements about the discovery of restriction enzymes is INCORRECT?

261 / 1064

Category: Discovery

261. A restriction enzyme recognizes a palindromic sequence and cuts the DNA between the second and third bases from the 5' end on both strands. If the recognition sequence is $5'$ GGATCC $3'$, what will be the resulting sticky ends after cleavage?

262 / 1064

Category: Restriction Enzymes (Molecular Scissors)

262. Which of the following statements about Type II restriction enzymes is correct?

263 / 1064

Category: Restriction Enzymes (Molecular Scissors)

263. A DNA fragment with sticky ends is produced by which type of action of a restriction enzyme?

264 / 1064

Category: Restriction Enzymes (Molecular Scissors)

264. Which of the following sequences represents a palindromic DNA sequence that could be recognized by a restriction enzyme?

265 / 1064

Category: This is one of the core sections of the chapter.

265. In a stirred-tank bioreactor, the oxygen transfer rate is critical for the growth of recombinant $E.\ coli$ producing insulin. If the agitation speed is increased beyond the optimal range, what could be a potential issue during downstream processing?

266 / 1064

Category: This is one of the core sections of the chapter.

266. During a PCR experiment, the annealing temperature is set too high. What effect will this have on the amplification process and the subsequent gel electrophoresis results?

267 / 1064

Category: This is one of the core sections of the chapter.

267. A researcher wants to clone a gene of interest into the $pBR322$ vector. The gene has $EcoRI$ restriction sites at both ends. The vector also has an $EcoRI$ site within the ampicillin resistance gene. If the researcher uses $EcoRI$ for cloning and transforms the recombinant DNA into $E.\ coli$ cells, which of the following will indicate successful insertion of the gene?

268 / 1064

Category: Basic Tools of Genetic Engineering

268. In analyzing PCR products by agarose gel electrophoresis, you observe faint, smeared bands instead of distinct bands. What is the most likely explanation if all reagents were added correctly?

269 / 1064

Category: Basic Tools of Genetic Engineering

269. When designing a plasmid vector for cloning a 10kb gene into E. coli, which of the following features would be most critical to include for successful selection of transformed cells?

270 / 1064

Category: Basic Tools of Genetic Engineering

270. A researcher cuts two different DNA samples with EcoRI and HindIII restriction enzymes respectively. The resulting fragments have complementary sticky ends. If these fragments are mixed with DNA ligase in a reaction, what will be the outcome?

271 / 1064

Category: Liposome-mediated transfer

271. Why are nucleic acids encapsulated in liposomes tolerant to nuclease degradation?

272 / 1064

Category: Liposome-mediated transfer

272. How does DNA enter the protoplast during liposome-mediated gene transfer?

273 / 1064

Category: Liposome-mediated transfer

273. What is the primary method used to prepare liposomes for gene transfer in plants?

274 / 1064

Category: Gene gun (biolistic method)

274. Which materials are commonly used for coating DNA in the gene gun method?

275 / 1064

Category: Gene gun (biolistic method)

275. What happens to the cell membranes after microprojectile penetration in the gene gun method?

276 / 1064

Category: Gene gun (biolistic method)

276. Which of the following crops has NOT been successfully transformed using the gene gun (biolistic) method as per the syllabus?

277 / 1064

Category: Microinjection

277. What is a major limitation of the microinjection method?

278 / 1064

Category: Microinjection

278. Which of the following is an advantage of the microinjection technique in genetic engineering?

279 / 1064

Category: Microinjection

279. What types of cells are commonly targeted in microinjection for introducing foreign DNA?

280 / 1064

Category: Electroporation

280. What happens to plant protoplasts after successful electroporation?

281 / 1064

Category: Electroporation

281. Which of the following crops has NOT been successfully transformed using electroporation?

282 / 1064

Category: Electroporation

282. What is the primary effect of applying high-voltage electrical pulses during electroporation?

283 / 1064

Category: Calcium chloride treatment

283. What defines a competent host cell in genetic engineering?

284 / 1064

Category: Calcium chloride treatment

284. Why is a heat shock treatment (37°C - 45°C) applied after calcium chloride treatment during bacterial transformation?

285 / 1064

Category: Calcium chloride treatment

285. What is the primary role of calcium chloride ($CaCl_2$) in making bacterial cells competent for DNA uptake?

286 / 1064

Category: Methods to Make Cells Competent

286. Which of the following plant species has been successfully transformed using the microprojectile gun method?

287 / 1064

Category: Methods to Make Cells Competent

287. What is the purpose of applying high-voltage electrical pulses in the electroporation technique?

288 / 1064

Category: Methods to Make Cells Competent

288. Which method involves the use of divalent cations like calcium to enhance DNA uptake by bacterial cells?

289 / 1064

Category: Known genetics

289. In gel electrophoresis, how does the migration distance of DNA fragments relate to their size?

290 / 1064

Category: Known genetics

290. What is the role of DNA ligase in recombinant DNA technology?

291 / 1064

Category: Known genetics

291. Which of the following restriction enzymes cuts DNA at the sequence GAATTC?

292 / 1064

Category: Fast replication

292. What feature of an ideal cloning vector allows it to replicate independently within bacterial cells?

293 / 1064

Category: Fast replication

293. Which of the following components in PCR ensures that only the specific target DNA sequence is amplified?

294 / 1064

Category: Fast replication

294. If a PCR reaction starts with 10 copies of the target DNA sequence and undergoes 5 cycles, how many copies will be present after amplification?

295 / 1064

Category: Easy to culture

295. This would address advantages of easily cultured organisms in biotech applications if syllabus existed.

296 / 1064

Category: Easy to culture

296. This would be another medium-level question about culturing techniques if syllabus was provided.

297 / 1064

Category: Easy to culture

297. This question would cover an important aspect of easy-to-culture organisms in genetic engineering if syllabus was available.

298 / 1064

Category: Competent Host (Microbial Host)

298. What is the purpose of using selectable markers like antibiotic resistance genes in recombinant DNA technology?

299 / 1064

Category: Competent Host (Microbial Host)

299. Which method involves applying a high-voltage electric pulse to introduce recombinant DNA into host cells?

300 / 1064

Category: Competent Host (Microbial Host)

300. Which step is essential for making bacterial cells competent for transformation?

301 / 1064

Category: Common Vectors Used

301. Which component of the Ti plasmid is responsible for transferring and integrating foreign DNA into the plant genome?

302 / 1064

Category: Common Vectors Used

302. What is the purpose of the $lac Z$ gene in pUC vectors during blue-white screening?

303 / 1064

Category: Common Vectors Used

303. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of plasmids used in genetic engineering?

304 / 1064

Category: YACs (Yeast artificial chromosomes)

304. In which project were YACs prominently used as vectors for genome sequencing?

305 / 1064

Category: YACs (Yeast artificial chromosomes)

305. What is the primary advantage of using YACs over plasmids in genetic engineering?

306 / 1064

Category: YACs (Yeast artificial chromosomes)

306. Which of the following is an essential component for constructing a Yeast Artificial Chromosome (YAC)?

307 / 1064

Category: BACs (Bacterial artificial chromosomes)

307. Which feature of BAC ensures stable maintenance and low copy number of the foreign DNA in the host bacterium?

308 / 1064

Category: BACs (Bacterial artificial chromosomes)

308. What is the typical size range of DNA fragments that can be cloned using a Bacterial Artificial Chromosome (BAC)?

309 / 1064

Category: BACs (Bacterial artificial chromosomes)

309. Which of the following components is NOT part of a Bacterial Artificial Chromosome (BAC)?

310 / 1064

Category: Types of Vectors

310. Which of the following describes the role of phenolic compounds in the context of Ti plasmids?

311 / 1064

Category: Types of Vectors

311. What feature of pUC vectors allows for blue-white screening of recombinant colonies?

312 / 1064

Category: Types of Vectors

312. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of plasmids used as vectors in genetic engineering?

313 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

313. What is the significance of multiple unique restriction sites in a cloning vector?

314 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

314. Why is a selectable marker essential in a cloning vector?

315 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

315. What is the primary role of the origin of replication (ori) in a cloning vector?

316 / 1064

Category: Cloning Vectors

316. In the blue-white selection method, what is the role of X-gal in identifying recombinant colonies?

317 / 1064

Category: Cloning Vectors

317. What happens when foreign DNA is inserted into the $lacZ$ gene in a pUC vector?

318 / 1064

Category: Cloning Vectors

318. Which of the following is NOT a feature of an ideal cloning vector?

319 / 1064

Category: Cleavage Patterns

319. Which type of restriction enzyme is most commonly used in genetic engineering due to its specificity?

320 / 1064

Category: Cleavage Patterns

320. A palindrome in DNA refers to:

321 / 1064

Category: Cleavage Patterns

321. Which of the following correctly describes the naming convention for restriction enzymes?

322 / 1064

Category: Recognition Sequences

322. A palindrome sequence in DNA is characterized by:

323 / 1064

Category: Recognition Sequences

323. Which type of restriction enzyme is most commonly used in genetic engineering due to its specificity?

324 / 1064

Category: Recognition Sequences

324. The first three letters in the name of a restriction enzyme represent which of the following?

325 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

325. Which of the following restriction enzymes produces sticky ends when it cuts the DNA sequence $5'\text{G A A T T C} 3'$?

326 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

326. The restriction enzyme HindIII was isolated from which bacterial strain?

327 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

327. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Type II restriction enzymes?

328 / 1064

Category: Discovery

328. What is a palindromic sequence in DNA?

329 / 1064

Category: Discovery

329. How is the restriction enzyme Eco RI named?

330 / 1064

Category: Discovery

330. Which of the following statements about restriction enzymes is correct?

331 / 1064

Category: Restriction Enzymes (Molecular Scissors)

331. What is the significance of palindromic sequences in the context of restriction enzymes?

332 / 1064

Category: Restriction Enzymes (Molecular Scissors)

332. Which type of restriction enzyme is commonly used in recombinant DNA technology due to its specificity in cutting DNA?

333 / 1064

Category: Restriction Enzymes (Molecular Scissors)

333. Which of the following correctly explains the naming convention for restriction enzymes?

334 / 1064

Category: This is one of the core sections of the chapter.

334. Which of the following features is NOT essential for a cloning vector?

335 / 1064

Category: This is one of the core sections of the chapter.

335. In Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), what is the purpose of using thermostable DNA polymerase such as $Taq$ polymerase?

336 / 1064

Category: This is one of the core sections of the chapter.

336. Which of the following restriction enzymes will produce sticky ends when it cuts the DNA sequence $5^{\prime}\text{-GAATTC-}3^{\prime}$?

337 / 1064

Category: Basic Tools of Genetic Engineering

337. In PCR, what is the role of Taq polymerase?

338 / 1064

Category: Basic Tools of Genetic Engineering

338. What is the primary function of DNA ligase in genetic engineering?

339 / 1064

Category: Basic Tools of Genetic Engineering

339. Which of the following enzymes produces sticky ends when it cuts the DNA sequence $5'-GAATTC-3'$?

340 / 1064

Category: Liposome-mediated transfer

340. Which of these plant species has been successfully transformed using liposome-mediated gene transfer?

341 / 1064

Category: Liposome-mediated transfer

341. Why is DNA entrapped in liposomes protected from nucleases?

342 / 1064

Category: Liposome-mediated transfer

342. What are the primary components used to prepare liposomes for gene transfer?

343 / 1064

Category: Gene gun (biolistic method)

343. Among the following, which crop has been successfully transformed using the gene gun method?

344 / 1064

Category: Gene gun (biolistic method)

344. Which materials are commonly used as microprojectiles in the gene gun method?

345 / 1064

Category: Gene gun (biolistic method)

345. The gene gun method is particularly useful for transforming which type of plants?

346 / 1064

Category: Microinjection

346. If 500 cells are injected with foreign DNA and 150 are successfully transformed, what is the transformation efficiency?

347 / 1064

Category: Microinjection

347. Which type of cells are commonly transformed using microinjection?

348 / 1064

Category: Microinjection

348. What is the main advantage of microinjection in genetic engineering?

349 / 1064

Category: Electroporation

349. After electroporation, what happens to the treated plant cells if properly managed?

350 / 1064

Category: Electroporation

350. Which of the following plant species has been successfully transformed using electroporation?

351 / 1064

Category: Electroporation

351. What is the purpose of applying high-voltage electrical pulses in electroporation?

352 / 1064

Category: Calcium chloride treatment

352. How does calcium chloride facilitate the uptake of DNA by bacterial cells?

353 / 1064

Category: Calcium chloride treatment

353. What is the primary purpose of calcium chloride treatment in bacterial transformation?

354 / 1064

Category: Methods to Make Cells Competent

354. Which material is commonly coated with DNA for gene transfer using the microprojectile gun method?

355 / 1064

Category: Methods to Make Cells Competent

355. What is the main purpose of applying high-voltage electrical pulses in electroporation?

356 / 1064

Category: Methods to Make Cells Competent

356. Which divalent cation is commonly used to increase the efficiency of DNA uptake in bacterial cells during competency preparation?

357 / 1064

Category: Known genetics

357. Which of the following is a commonly used plasmid vector in genetic engineering?

358 / 1064

Category: Known genetics

358. Which enzyme is responsible for joining DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds?

359 / 1064

Category: Known genetics

359. What is the function of restriction enzymes in genetic engineering?

360 / 1064

Category: Fast replication

360. After 5 cycles of PCR, how many copies of the original DNA will be produced if you start with one copy?

361 / 1064

Category: Fast replication

361. Which of the following best describes primers in PCR?

362 / 1064

Category: Fast replication

362. What is the first step in the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) process?

363 / 1064

Category: Easy to culture

363. What does PCR stand for in genetic engineering?

364 / 1064

Category: Easy to culture

364. What is a commonly used vector in genetic engineering?

365 / 1064

Category: Easy to culture

365. Which enzyme is used to cut DNA at specific sequences?

366 / 1064

Category: Competent Host (Microbial Host)

366. Which of the following methods is commonly used to select transformed bacterial cells after introducing recombinant DNA?

367 / 1064

Category: Competent Host (Microbial Host)

367. During transformation, what temperature is used for heat shock treatment to stimulate DNA uptake in bacterial cells?

368 / 1064

Category: Competent Host (Microbial Host)

368. What is the role of calcium chloride ($CaCl_2$) in making bacterial cells competent?

369 / 1064

Category: Common Vectors Used

369. What is transferred into the plant genome by $Agrobacterium tumefaciens$ during genetic transformation?

370 / 1064

Category: Common Vectors Used

370. What is the purpose of the lac Z gene in pUC vectors?

371 / 1064

Category: Common Vectors Used

371. Which of the following is a natural function of plasmids in bacteria?

372 / 1064

Category: YACs (Yeast artificial chromosomes)

372. Which of the following is NOT a key feature of YACs?

373 / 1064

Category: YACs (Yeast artificial chromosomes)

373. What is the maximum size of foreign DNA that a YAC can accept?

374 / 1064

Category: YACs (Yeast artificial chromosomes)

374. What are YACs (Yeast Artificial Chromosomes) primarily constructed from?

375 / 1064

Category: BACs (Bacterial artificial chromosomes)

375. Which of the following components is NOT typically found in a Bacterial Artificial Chromosome (BAC)?

376 / 1064

Category: BACs (Bacterial artificial chromosomes)

376. What is the typical size range of DNA fragments that can be cloned into a BAC?

377 / 1064

Category: BACs (Bacterial artificial chromosomes)

377. What makes Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes (BACs) more stable than Yeast Artificial Chromosomes (YACs)?

378 / 1064

Category: Types of Vectors

378. Which bacterium is known for its use in genetic engineering of plants due to its tumor-inducing plasmid (Ti plasmid)?

379 / 1064

Category: Types of Vectors

379. What is the primary use of Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes (BACs) in genetic engineering?

380 / 1064

Category: Types of Vectors

380. Which of the following is commonly used as a vector in genetic engineering to transfer foreign DNA into bacterial cells?

381 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

381. Why should an ideal vector have a limited number of restriction enzyme recognition sites?

382 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

382. Which of the following is a commonly used selectable marker in cloning vectors?

383 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

383. What is the primary function of the origin of replication (ori) in a vector?

384 / 1064

Category: Cloning Vectors

384. Which type of artificial chromosome is used for cloning very large DNA fragments and is more stable than YACs?

385 / 1064

Category: Cloning Vectors

385. Which of the following is a common selectable marker used in cloning vectors for \$E. coli\$?

386 / 1064

Category: Cloning Vectors

386. What is the role of the origin of replication (ori) in a cloning vector?

387 / 1064

Category: Cleavage Patterns

387. Which sequence represents a palindromic DNA sequence recognized by a restriction enzyme?

388 / 1064

Category: Cleavage Patterns

388. Why are Type II restriction enzymes preferred in genetic engineering?

389 / 1064

Category: Cleavage Patterns

389. Which of the following correctly describes the naming convention for restriction enzymes?

390 / 1064

Category: Recognition Sequences

390. Which type of restriction enzyme is most commonly used in genetic engineering due to its precise cutting ability?

391 / 1064

Category: Recognition Sequences

391. What is a palindromic sequence in DNA?

392 / 1064

Category: Recognition Sequences

392. How is the name of a restriction enzyme derived?

393 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

393. Why are palindromic sequences important for restriction enzymes?

394 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

394. What does "EcoRI" represent in the naming of restriction enzymes?

395 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

395. Which type of restriction enzyme is most commonly used in genetic engineering due to its ability to cleave DNA at specific sites?

396 / 1064

Category: Discovery

396. Which type of restriction enzyme is most commonly used in genetic engineering?

397 / 1064

Category: Discovery

397. How are restriction enzymes named?

398 / 1064

Category: Discovery

398. Who discovered the first restriction endonuclease?

399 / 1064

Category: Restriction Enzymes (Molecular Scissors)

399. A palindrome in DNA refers to:

400 / 1064

Category: Restriction Enzymes (Molecular Scissors)

400. Which type of restriction enzyme is commonly used in genetic engineering for cleaving DNA at specific sequences?

401 / 1064

Category: Restriction Enzymes (Molecular Scissors)

401. What does the first three letters of a restriction enzyme name represent?

402 / 1064

Category: This is one of the core sections of the chapter.

402. Which of the following is NOT a feature of a cloning vector?

403 / 1064

Category: This is one of the core sections of the chapter.

403. Which step in PCR involves binding primers to complementary sequences on the DNA template?

404 / 1064

Category: This is one of the core sections of the chapter.

404. What is the function of restriction enzymes in genetic engineering?

405 / 1064

Category: Basic Tools of Genetic Engineering

405. What is the first step in the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) process?

406 / 1064

Category: Basic Tools of Genetic Engineering

406. Which enzyme is known as "molecular scissors" in genetic engineering?

407 / 1064

Category: By cloning.

407. Why is the tumor-inducing (Ti) plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens particularly useful for genetic transformation in plants?

408 / 1064

Category: By cloning.

408. What is a key difference between a genomic library and a cDNA library?

409 / 1064

Category: By cloning.

409. A researcher ligates a foreign DNA fragment into the Bam HI site of pBR322 plasmid. Which of the following statements correctly describes the selection process for transformed E. coli cells?

410 / 1064

Category: Replacement of nuclei.

410. How does the replacement of nuclei technique differ from the microinjection method in genetic transformation?

411 / 1064

Category: Replacement of nuclei.

411. Which statement best describes the genetic relationship between the offspring produced by nuclear transfer and the donor somatic cell?

412 / 1064

Category: Replacement of nuclei.

412. What is the primary role of enucleated eggs in the replacement of nuclei technique for genetic transformation?

413 / 1064

Category: Microinjection method.

413. Why is the microinjection method particularly useful for creating transgenic animals compared to other transformation techniques?

414 / 1064

Category: Microinjection method.

414. Which factor is most critical for the successful integration of injected DNA into the host genome during microinjection?

415 / 1064

Category: Microinjection method.

415. What is the primary reason for using linear DNA instead of circular DNA in the microinjection method for genetic transformation?

416 / 1064

Category: Transformation of fertilized eggs or embry: os.

416. Which characteristic of retroviruses makes them suitable for stable foreign gene expression in animal cells?

417 / 1064

Category: Transformation of fertilized eggs or embry: os.

417. In somatic cell nuclear transfer, which step ensures that the offspring will have the genetic complement of the donor nucleus?

418 / 1064

Category: Transformation of fertilized eggs or embry: os.

418. Which of the following is a critical factor for ensuring successful integration of foreign DNA into an embryo's genome when using the microinjection method?

419 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN ANIMALS

419. Which of the following methods relies on the fusion of lipid-based vesicles with the cell membrane to deliver foreign DNA into mammalian cells?

420 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN ANIMALS

420. In an experiment, nuclei from somatic cells of a transgenic animal are transferred into enucleated eggs. What is the genetic makeup of the resulting offspring likely to be?

421 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN ANIMALS

421. A researcher is attempting to introduce a foreign gene into mammalian cells for stable expression. Which of the following techniques would ensure minimal host cell damage while maintaining high efficiency and stable integration of the foreign gene?

422 / 1064

Category: By cloning.

422. What is the role of the rop gene in the pBR322 plasmid?

423 / 1064

Category: By cloning.

423. In the plasmid pBR322, which of the following restriction sites lies within the tetracycline resistance gene ({tet}$^R$)?

424 / 1064

Category: Replacement of nuclei.

424. Which of the following is a key application of nuclear replacement in animals?

425 / 1064

Category: Replacement of nuclei.

425. In nuclear replacement, what is the first step before introducing donor nuclei into the recipient egg?

426 / 1064

Category: Replacement of nuclei.

426. What is the primary purpose of replacing nuclei in genetic transformation techniques?

427 / 1064

Category: Microinjection method.

427. What is one limitation of the microinjection method that restricts its widespread use?

428 / 1064

Category: Microinjection method.

428. What is a primary application of the microinjection method in genetic transformation?

429 / 1064

Category: Microinjection method.

429. Which step in the microinjection method involves the direct delivery of foreign DNA into the nucleus of a fertilized egg?

430 / 1064

Category: Transformation of fertilized eggs or embry: os.

430. Which type of viruses are commonly used for stable integration of foreign genes into the host genome without harming the host cells?

431 / 1064

Category: Transformation of fertilized eggs or embry: os.

431. In the nuclei replacement technique, what happens to the egg's original haploid nucleus before transferring the donor nucleus?

432 / 1064

Category: Transformation of fertilized eggs or embry: os.

432. Which of the following is a key feature of the microinjection method used in genetic transformation of fertilized eggs?

433 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN ANIMALS

433. In the context of genetic transformation, what is the primary purpose of cloning desirable genomes?

434 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN ANIMALS

434. What is a key feature of retroviruses used in virus-mediated gene transfer?

435 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN ANIMALS

435. Which of the following is the primary advantage of using a glass microinjection needle for DNA injection into fertilized eggs?

436 / 1064

Category: By cloning.

436. In the pBR322 vector, which gene loses its function if a foreign DNA is inserted at the Bam HI site?

437 / 1064

Category: By cloning.

437. What does a cDNA library represent?

438 / 1064

Category: By cloning.

438. Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for cloning genes in animals?

439 / 1064

Category: Replacement of nuclei.

439. What is the final step in the nuclear replacement technique before gestation?

440 / 1064

Category: Replacement of nuclei.

440. Which type of nucleus is transferred into the enucleated egg during nuclear replacement?

441 / 1064

Category: Replacement of nuclei.

441. What is the purpose of removing the haploid nucleus from an egg in nuclear replacement?

442 / 1064

Category: Microinjection method.

442. Which of the following is a common application of the microinjection method?

443 / 1064

Category: Microinjection method.

443. Where is the DNA injected during the microinjection method?

444 / 1064

Category: Microinjection method.

444. What is the primary tool used in the microinjection method for genetic transformation?

445 / 1064

Category: Transformation of fertilized eggs or embry: os.

445. Which viruses are typically used for virus-mediated gene transfer in animal cells?

446 / 1064

Category: Transformation of fertilized eggs or embry: os.

446. What happens in the nuclei replacement technique for genetic transformation?

447 / 1064

Category: Transformation of fertilized eggs or embry: os.

447. Which method is most commonly used for the transformation of fertilized eggs by injecting DNA directly into the nucleus?

448 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN ANIMALS

448. Which of the following methods involves applying an electric pulse to introduce DNA into cultured mammalian cells?

449 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN ANIMALS

449. Which type of viruses are commonly used as vectors for gene transfer in animal cells?

450 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN ANIMALS

450. Which of the following is the most commonly used method for directly injecting DNA into the nucleus of a cell?

451 / 1064

Category: Reporter genes in transformation.

451. A researcher observes that after Agrobacterium-mediated transformation, calli grow on ampicillin-containing medium but not on kanamycin-containing medium. If the plasmid used carried both $\text{amp}^R$ and $\text{kan}^R$ genes, what could explain this observation?

452 / 1064

Category: Reporter genes in transformation.

452. A scientist introduces Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) into plant cells along with a herbicide-resistance gene. Under UV light, some cells fluoresce green but fail to grow on herbicide-containing medium. What is the most likely explanation?

453 / 1064

Category: Reporter genes in transformation.

453. In a plant transformation experiment, the researcher uses kanamycin resistance as a selectable marker and $\beta$-glucuronidase (GUS) as a scoreable marker. After transformation, tissues are cultured on medium containing kanamycin and stained with X-Gluc. What does the presence of blue color in the tissue indicate?

454 / 1064

Category: Virus mediated gene transfer.

454. A scientist clones the genome of Cauliflower Mosaic Virus (CaMV) into an $E. coli$ vector and successfully infects turnip plants with the cloned genome. However, the scientist notices severe disease symptoms in some plants. What could be a potential limitation of using CaMV as a vector in this scenario?

455 / 1064

Category: Virus mediated gene transfer.

455. A biotechnologist aims to use virus-mediated gene transfer to enhance the nutritional quality of tomatoes by introducing a vitamin-enhancing gene. What key advantage of viral vectors ensures widespread expression of the foreign gene in all parts of the tomato plant?

456 / 1064

Category: Virus mediated gene transfer.

456. A researcher is working on virus-mediated gene transfer in wheat plants to introduce a drought-resistant gene. Which viral vector would be most suitable for this purpose considering host specificity and minimal virulence?

457 / 1064

Category: Ti plasmid as gene vectors

457. If the left border sequence of the T-DNA is deleted during vector construction, what effect would this have on the transformation process?

458 / 1064

Category: Ti plasmid as gene vectors

458. A researcher modifies the Ti plasmid by removing the auxin and cytokinin synthesis genes but retains the opine synthesis genes. What would be the most likely outcome when this modified plasmid is used to transform a dicotyledonous plant?

459 / 1064

Category: Ti plasmid as gene vectors

459. Which of the following best describes the role of acetosyringone in the process of T-DNA transfer by Agrobacterium tumefaciens?

460 / 1064

Category: Agrobacterium tumefaciens and T. rhizogenes.

460. Why do injured plant cells facilitate T-DNA transfer from Agrobacterium tumefaciens to their genomes?

461 / 1064

Category: Agrobacterium tumefaciens and T. rhizogenes.

461. A researcher isolates a Ti plasmid with a molecular weight of $1.5 \times 10^8$. What can be concluded about this plasmid's functionality in genetic transformation compared to standard Ti plasmids?

462 / 1064

Category: Agrobacterium tumefaciens and T. rhizogenes.

462. During genetic transformation using Agrobacterium tumefaciens, what would be the most likely outcome if the 'vir' region is mutated but the T-DNA remains intact?

463 / 1064

Category: vector dependent gene transfer,

463. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an ideal plant transformation vector?

464 / 1064

Category: vector dependent gene transfer,

464. What is a key advantage of using Cauliflower Mosaic Virus (CaMV) as a vector for plant genetic transformation?

465 / 1064

Category: vector dependent gene transfer,

465. Which of the following statements about Ti plasmid-mediated gene transfer in plants is incorrect?

466 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN PLANTS

466. In a genetic transformation experiment, a selectable marker gene is used. What is the primary function of this marker in identifying transformed cells?

467 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN PLANTS

467. A researcher is attempting to transform rice protoplasts using electroporation. Which of the following conditions would most likely enhance the uptake of foreign DNA?

468 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN PLANTS

468. Which of the following best describes the role of phenolic compounds released by injured plant cells in Agrobacterium-mediated transformation?

469 / 1064

Category: Reporter genes in transformation.

469. What is the primary purpose of using reporter genes like GFP (Green Fluorescent Protein) in plant genetic engineering?

470 / 1064

Category: Reporter genes in transformation.

470. The $\beta$-glucuronidase (GUS) reporter gene is widely used in plant transformation because:

471 / 1064

Category: Reporter genes in transformation.

471. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of selectable marker genes in genetic transformation of plants?

472 / 1064

Category: Virus mediated gene transfer.

472. Which of the following is a major limitation of using viral vectors for plant genetic transformation?

473 / 1064

Category: Virus mediated gene transfer.

473. ) What is a key advantage of using CaMV as a viral vector for genetic transformation in plants?

474 / 1064

Category: Virus mediated gene transfer.

474. Which characteristic is MOST critical for a viral vector to be effective in gene transfer?

475 / 1064

Category: Ti plasmid as gene vectors

475. What is a key advantage of using Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes (BACs) over Yeast Artificial Chromosomes (YACs)?

476 / 1064

Category: Ti plasmid as gene vectors

476. What happens when T-DNA from the Ti plasmid integrates into the host plant's genome?

477 / 1064

Category: Ti plasmid as gene vectors

477. Which region of the Ti plasmid is essential for Agrobacterium tumefaciens to infect and transform plant cells?

478 / 1064

Category: Agrobacterium tumefaciens and T. rhizogenes.

478. What is a major limitation of using Agrobacterium tumefaciens for genetic transformation?

479 / 1064

Category: Agrobacterium tumefaciens and T. rhizogenes.

479. Which of the following best describes the role of the Ti plasmid in Agrobacterium tumefaciens?

480 / 1064

Category: Agrobacterium tumefaciens and T. rhizogenes.

480. What activates the transfer of T-DNA from Agrobacterium tumefaciens to plant cells?

481 / 1064

Category: vector dependent gene transfer,

481. Why are Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes (BACs) preferred over Yeast Artificial Chromosomes (YACs) for cloning large DNA segments?

482 / 1064

Category: vector dependent gene transfer,

482. What is the primary characteristic that makes Cauliflower Mosaic Virus (CaMV) an effective vector for gene transfer in plants?

483 / 1064

Category: vector dependent gene transfer,

483. Which feature of the Ti plasmid makes it suitable for gene transfer in plants?

484 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN PLANTS

484. Why are reporter genes used in genetic transformation experiments?

485 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN PLANTS

485. What is the principle behind the electroporation method of gene transfer in plants?

486 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN PLANTS

486. Which of the following components of the Ti plasmid is responsible for the transfer and integration of T-DNA into the plant genome?

487 / 1064

Category: Reporter genes in transformation.

487. Which of the following is an example of a reporter gene commonly used in blue-white selection?

488 / 1064

Category: Reporter genes in transformation.

488. Which of the following best describes a scoreable marker in genetic transformation?

489 / 1064

Category: Reporter genes in transformation.

489. What is the primary role of a selectable marker in genetic transformation?

490 / 1064

Category: Virus mediated gene transfer.

490. What is one major advantage of using viral vectors for gene transfer in plants?

491 / 1064

Category: Virus mediated gene transfer.

491. CaMV is commonly used as a vector for gene transfer in which type of plants?

492 / 1064

Category: Virus mediated gene transfer.

492. Which of the following is a critical factor for selecting a viral vector in virus-mediated gene transfer?

493 / 1064

Category: Ti plasmid as gene vectors

493. What is the role of the 'vir' region in the Ti plasmid during genetic transformation?

494 / 1064

Category: Ti plasmid as gene vectors

494. What happens to the T-DNA after it is transferred from the Ti plasmid to the plant cell?

495 / 1064

Category: Ti plasmid as gene vectors

495. Which of the following best describes the primary role of the Ti plasmid in Agrobacterium tumefaciens?

496 / 1064

Category: Agrobacterium tumefaciens and T. rhizogenes.

496. Which of the following is an example of a selectable marker used in genetic transformation?

497 / 1064

Category: Agrobacterium tumefaciens and T. rhizogenes.

497. Which region of the Ti plasmid is transferred to the plant cell during genetic transformation by Agrobacterium tumefaciens?

498 / 1064

Category: Agrobacterium tumefaciens and T. rhizogenes.

498. What is the tumor-inducing plasmid in Agrobacterium tumefaciens called?

499 / 1064

Category: vector dependent gene transfer,

499. What is the primary function of a selectable marker gene in plant transformation?

500 / 1064

Category: vector dependent gene transfer,

500. What is the role of the *vir* region in the Ti plasmid of *Agrobacterium tumefaciens*?

501 / 1064

Category: vector dependent gene transfer,

501. Which of the following is an ideal property of a plant transformation vector?

502 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN PLANTS

502. What is the primary purpose of a selectable marker gene in genetic transformation?

503 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN PLANTS

503. What method involves the delivery of DNA into protoplasts using artificial lipid vesicles?

504 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN PLANTS

504. Which plasmid is responsible for the tumor-inducing capacity in Agrobacterium tumefaciens?

505 / 1064

Category: MORAL AND ETHICAL ISSUES OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

505. What is a major ethical concern associated with human cloning, and how might regulatory bodies like GEAC address this issue?

506 / 1064

Category: MORAL AND ETHICAL ISSUES OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

506. When constructing a cDNA library from a tissue sample, what is the key difference compared to a genomic DNA library, and how does this impact ethical discussions in genetic engineering?

507 / 1064

Category: MORAL AND ETHICAL ISSUES OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

507. A researcher is using restriction enzymes to create a recombinant DNA molecule for gene therapy. Which of the following ethical considerations should be primarily addressed before proceeding with this research?

508 / 1064

Category: RISKS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

508. A genetically modified mosquito designed to combat malaria is released into an ecosystem after successful lab trials. After several generations, scientists observe unexpected changes in local food chains. What best explains this phenomenon?

509 / 1064

Category: RISKS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

509. A new genetic test developed using recombinant DNA technology can identify individuals predisposed to a severe neurological disorder with 95% accuracy. While beneficial for early intervention, what is the most concerning social implication of this technology?

510 / 1064

Category: RISKS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

510. A researcher is attempting to clone a human insulin gene into a bacterial plasmid for mass production. During the process, the restriction enzyme cuts at an unintended site in the human genome, creating fragments with sticky ends that could potentially recombine randomly. What is the most significant risk associated with this scenario?

511 / 1064

Category: APPLICATIONS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

511. Which method of genetic transformation in plants does not involve a vector?

512 / 1064

Category: APPLICATIONS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

512. What is a significant challenge in somatic gene therapy for treating genetic diseases like SCID?

513 / 1064

Category: APPLICATIONS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

513. Which of the following statements about restriction enzymes is correct?

514 / 1064

Category: Downstream processing.

514. Why is crystallization often used as a final step in downstream processing rather than an initial step?

515 / 1064

Category: Downstream processing.

515. A bioreactor produces a culture broth containing a recombinant protein mixed with cellular debris and other impurities. Which sequence of steps would most efficiently yield a marketable product?

516 / 1064

Category: Downstream processing.

516. In downstream processing, why is chromatography considered more effective than centrifugation for purifying recombinant proteins?

517 / 1064

Category: Obtaining the foreign gen product

517. Which component of a stirred-tank bioreactor is crucial for maintaining oxygen levels needed for aerobic cell metabolism during foreign gene product production?

518 / 1064

Category: Obtaining the foreign gen product

518. What is a significant advantage of using a continuous culture system over batch culture for producing foreign gene products?

519 / 1064

Category: Obtaining the foreign gen product

519. In recombinant DNA technology, what happens when a foreign gene is inserted into a bacterial host and successfully expressed as a protein?

520 / 1064

Category: Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell/organism

520. A retroviral vector is engineered for gene therapy to deliver a therapeutic gene into human hematopoietic stem cells. What is a critical challenge specific to retroviral vectors that must be addressed to ensure safe and effective delivery?

521 / 1064

Category: Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell/organism

521. In a comparative study, electroporation was used to introduce recombinant DNA into bacterial and mammalian cells. Which parameter must be optimized differently for these cell types to ensure successful transformation?

522 / 1064

Category: Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell/organism

522. A researcher is attempting to transform E. coli cells with a recombinant plasmid using calcium chloride treatment. However, the transformation efficiency remains low despite following standard protocols. Which of the following modifications is most likely to increase the transformation efficiency?

523 / 1064

Category: Amplification of gene of interest usin g PCR (polymerase chain reaction). M

523. What happens if the annealing temperature in PCR is set too low compared to the optimal temperature?

524 / 1064

Category: Amplification of gene of interest usin g PCR (polymerase chain reaction). M

524. If a PCR reaction starts with a single DNA molecule, how many copies will be produced after 10 cycles if the efficiency is 100%?

525 / 1064

Category: Amplification of gene of interest usin g PCR (polymerase chain reaction). M

525. Which of the following is a critical requirement for the denaturation step in PCR to work effectively?

526 / 1064

Category: Isolation of the genetic material (DNA)

526. What critical physical property change occurs when purified DNA precipitates upon adding chilled ethanol, making spooling possible?

527 / 1064

Category: Isolation of the genetic material (DNA)

527. A researcher observes poor restriction enzyme digestion after DNA isolation. Which step was likely omitted during purification that primarily affects this process?

528 / 1064

Category: Isolation of the genetic material (DNA)

528. During DNA isolation from a fungal sample, which enzyme would be most effective for cell lysis while ensuring minimal damage to the DNA?

529 / 1064

Category: Cutting of DNA at specific locations.

529. A PCR reaction is set up with primers designed to amplify a target DNA sequence. If one primer has the sequence $5'$ ATGCGT $3'$ and binds to the template strand with the sequence $5'$ ACGCAT $3'$, what issue might arise during amplification?

530 / 1064

Category: Cutting of DNA at specific locations.

530. In gel electrophoresis, a linear DNA fragment of 1500 bp and another of 3000 bp are loaded into the same well. Assuming all conditions are optimal, how will their migration differ after electrophoresis?

531 / 1064

Category: Cutting of DNA at specific locations.

531. A researcher cuts a DNA segment with $EcoRI$ which recognizes the palindromic sequence $5'$ GAATTC $3'$. The enzyme cuts between G and A on both strands. What will be the resulting sticky ends?

532 / 1064

Category: PROCESSES OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

532. A scientist wants to clone a large DNA fragment (~200 kb) from a eukaryotic genome. Which vector would be most suitable for this purpose?

533 / 1064

Category: PROCESSES OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

533. During a Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), if the initial DNA template has 10 copies and the reaction undergoes 5 cycles, how many copies of the target DNA will be produced? Assume no errors in amplification.

534 / 1064

Category: PROCESSES OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

534. A researcher wants to isolate a gene of interest using restriction enzymes. The DNA sequence is cut with Eco RI (recognition sequence: G^AATTC). Which of the following statements about the resulting fragments is correct?

535 / 1064

Category: CLONING

535. A scientist aims to study only the expressed genes of a eukaryotic organism. Which type of gene library should they construct?

536 / 1064

Category: CLONING

536. In PCR amplification, if a DNA sample contains 20 ng of target DNA initially, and the amplification efficiency is 100% after 30 cycles, what will be the approximate amount of amplified DNA? (Assume no inhibitors are present.)

537 / 1064

Category: CLONING

537. A researcher wants to clone a large DNA fragment of 200 kb into a bacterial host for further study. Which vector would be most suitable for this purpose?

538 / 1064

Category: GENE LIBRARY

538. What is the significance of performing partial digestion with restriction enzymes when preparing a genomic library?

539 / 1064

Category: GENE LIBRARY

539. Which of the following scenarios would most likely require the use of a cDNA library instead of a genomic library?

540 / 1064

Category: GENE LIBRARY

540. What is the primary difference between a genomic library and a cDNA library?

541 / 1064

Category: Small size.

541. A biotechnologist needs to clone a 250 kb genomic fragment into $E. coli$ for sequencing. Which vector combines the stability of plasmids with the capacity to accommodate large inserts?

542 / 1064

Category: Small size.

542. In an experiment comparing plasmid vectors, BACs, and YACs, which vector would be the LEAST suitable for cloning a eukaryotic gene fragment of 1.5 Mb while ensuring stability and ease of manipulation?

543 / 1064

Category: Small size.

543. A researcher is analyzing the stability of different cloning vectors for recombinant DNA technology. Which of the following characteristics of a cloning vector would MOST likely contribute to its increased stability during purification and manipulation?

544 / 1064

Category: Cloning sites.

544. Which property of a cloning vector ensures that insertion of foreign DNA at a restriction site does not disrupt essential functions like replication?

545 / 1064

Category: Cloning sites.

545. In a blue-white selection system using $pUC19$, what would be the colony color if a foreign DNA is inserted into the multiple cloning site ($MCS$) located within the $lacZ$ gene?

546 / 1064

Category: Cloning sites.

546. A researcher is working with the plasmid $pBR322$ and inserts a foreign DNA fragment into the $BamHI$ site located within the tetracycline resistance gene ($tet^R$). What will be the phenotype of the transformed bacteria when plated on media containing both ampicillin and tetracycline?

547 / 1064

Category: Selectable marker.

547. What is the primary function of a reporter gene in genetic transformation experiments?

548 / 1064

Category: Selectable marker.

548. In the blue-white screening method using lacZ gene, what happens to the bacterial colonies containing recombinant plasmids when grown on X-gal and IPTG supplemented medium?

549 / 1064

Category: Selectable marker.

549. A researcher is using the pBR322 vector to clone a foreign DNA fragment into the BamHI site of the tetracycline resistance gene. After transformation, the colonies are first grown on ampicillin-containing medium and then replica-plated onto tetracycline-containing medium. Which of the following describes the expected growth pattern of recombinant plasmids?

550 / 1064

Category: Origin of replication (orl)

550. In an experiment comparing two plasmids with identical genes but different ori sequences, Plasmid X maintains 15-20 copies/cell while Plasmid Y shows 500-700 copies/cell. What downstream experimental outcome would most likely result from this copy number difference?

551 / 1064

Category: Origin of replication (orl)

551. A biotechnology company wants to develop a shuttle vector capable of replicating in both $E. coli$ and $Saccharomyces cerevisiae$. What feature must be present in the origin of replication (ori) for successful replication in both hosts?

552 / 1064

Category: Origin of replication (orl)

552. A researcher is working with a high-copy-number plasmid vector derived from pBR322 but observes that the copy number has unexpectedly decreased in the host $E. coli$ cells. Which modification in the ori sequence could most likely explain this observation?

553 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

553. When cloning a large DNA fragment (>50 kb), which vector property is crucial to maintain stability during purification and ensure consistent expression in the host?

554 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

554. A scientist aims to develop a recombinant vector that not only confers antibiotic resistance but also stably integrates into the host genome. Which type of vector would best fulfill these dual functionalities?

555 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

555. A researcher is designing a plasmid vector for high-copy-number expression in $E. coli$. The vector must have a specific origin of replication (ori) to achieve this. Additionally, the vector should allow cloning of foreign DNA without disrupting essential genes. Which feature would be most critical to ensure both requirements are met?

556 / 1064

Category: Cloning vectors.

556. In a genome sequencing project, researchers need to clone large DNA fragments (100-300 kb). Which vector would be most suitable for this purpose, and why?

557 / 1064

Category: Cloning vectors.

557. Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of the Ti plasmid in Agrobacterium tumefaciens-mediated plant transformation?

558 / 1064

Category: Cloning vectors.

558. A researcher is using a pUC vector to clone a gene of interest. The vector contains the lacZ gene with multiple cloning sites (MCS). If the foreign DNA is successfully inserted into the MCS, what will be the result when the transformed bacteria are grown on X-gal and ampicillin plates?

559 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

559. How do Type II restriction enzymes differ from Type I and Type III enzymes in terms of cleavage sites and ATP dependency?

560 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

560. Which of the following DNA sequences represents a palindromic recognition site for a Type II restriction enzyme?

561 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

561. A researcher is attempting to cleave a DNA sequence containing the recognition site for $EcoRI$ (5'-GAATTC-3'). However, they observe that the enzyme does not cleave the DNA efficiently. What could be the most plausible reason for this observation?

562 / 1064

Category: Enzymes.

562. Consider a DNA sequence that reads $5'-GGATCC-3'$ in the forward strand. If this is recognized by $BamHI$, what will be the resulting fragments after cleavage and their role in recombinant DNA formation?

563 / 1064

Category: Enzymes.

563. Which of the following correctly describes the difference between Type I and Type II restriction enzymes?

564 / 1064

Category: Enzymes.

564. A researcher uses $EcoRI$ to cut a DNA fragment with the sequence $5'-GAATTC-3'$ and then attempts to ligate it with another DNA fragment. Which of the following statements about this process is correct?

565 / 1064

Category: TOOLS OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

565. During a PCR experiment, a researcher needs to amplify a 1 kb region from genomic DNA. If the reaction starts with 100 copies of the target sequence and runs for 25 cycles, but the amplification efficiency is only 80% per cycle, approximately how many copies will be produced?

566 / 1064

Category: TOOLS OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

566. A linear DNA fragment of 10,000 base pairs is digested with three different restriction enzymes: $EcoRI$ produces fragments of 2000 bp and 8000 bp; $BamHI$ produces fragments of 3000 bp and 7000 bp; and $HindIII$ produces fragments of 1000 bp, 2000 bp, and 7000 bp. What is the order of these restriction sites if the $EcoRI$ site is at position 0 bp?

567 / 1064

Category: TOOLS OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

567. A researcher is working with a plasmid vector that has a single $EcoRI$ restriction site. After digesting the plasmid with $EcoRI$, they want to insert a gene of interest that was also cut with $EcoRI$. However, after ligation, some plasmids re-circularize without the insert. Which enzyme could be used to prevent this self-ligation of the vector?

568 / 1064

Category: MORAL AND ETHICAL ISSUES OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

568. Why are plasmids commonly used as cloning vectors in genetic engineering?

569 / 1064

Category: MORAL AND ETHICAL ISSUES OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

569. Which property distinguishes restriction enzymes from other nucleases?

570 / 1064

Category: MORAL AND ETHICAL ISSUES OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

570. What is the primary ethical concern associated with germline gene therapy?

571 / 1064

Category: RISKS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

571. What is a potential ethical concern regarding genetic engineering in humans?

572 / 1064

Category: RISKS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

572. Which type of gene library contains only exonic sequences?

573 / 1064

Category: RISKS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

573. What is the primary function of restriction enzymes in recombinant DNA technology?

574 / 1064

Category: APPLICATIONS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

574. Which disease was the first to be treated using somatic gene therapy in humans?

575 / 1064

Category: APPLICATIONS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

575. What type of gene library only contains exons and not introns?

576 / 1064

Category: APPLICATIONS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

576. Which enzyme is primarily responsible for cutting DNA at specific sequences in recombinant DNA technology?

577 / 1064

Category: Downstream processing.

577. Why is downstream processing essential in biotechnological production?

578 / 1064

Category: Downstream processing.

578. What is the main purpose of chromatography in downstream processing?

579 / 1064

Category: Downstream processing.

579. Which of the following techniques is primarily used to remove large particles and cellular debris from a culture broth during downstream processing?

580 / 1064

Category: Obtaining the foreign gen product

580. Which of the following is NOT a feature commonly found in a stirred-tank bioreactor used for large-scale protein production?

581 / 1064

Category: Obtaining the foreign gen product

581. In a continuous culture system, why is fresh medium continuously added while the used medium is drained out?

582 / 1064

Category: Obtaining the foreign gen product

582. What is the term used for a protein that is produced by the expression of a foreign gene in a host cell?

583 / 1064

Category: Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell/organism

583. After inserting recombinant DNA into host cells, how are the successfully transformed cells typically identified?

584 / 1064

Category: Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell/organism

584. What is the role of divalent cations like $Ca^{2+}$ in chemical transformation?

585 / 1064

Category: Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell/organism

585. Which method involves the direct injection of DNA into the nucleus of a host cell using a fine glass needle?

586 / 1064

Category: Amplification of gene of interest usin g PCR (polymerase chain reaction). M

586. If you start with one DNA molecule and perform 5 cycles of PCR, how many copies of the DNA will be theoretically generated?

587 / 1064

Category: Amplification of gene of interest usin g PCR (polymerase chain reaction). M

587. What is the primary function of the denaturation step in PCR?

588 / 1064

Category: Amplification of gene of interest usin g PCR (polymerase chain reaction). M

588. In a PCR reaction, which component binds specifically to the complementary 3’ ends of the single-stranded DNA during the annealing step?

589 / 1064

Category: Isolation of the genetic material (DNA)

589. Which enzyme is responsible for removing RNA contaminants during DNA isolation?

590 / 1064

Category: Isolation of the genetic material (DNA)

590. What substance is used to stain DNA for visualization under UV light during DNA isolation?

591 / 1064

Category: Isolation of the genetic material (DNA)

591. Which enzyme is used to break open plant cells during the isolation of genetic material?

592 / 1064

Category: Cutting of DNA at specific locations.

592. In Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), what is the role of primers?

593 / 1064

Category: Cutting of DNA at specific locations.

593. What is the purpose of using agarose gel in gel electrophoresis?

594 / 1064

Category: Cutting of DNA at specific locations.

594. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of restriction enzymes used in recombinant DNA technology?

595 / 1064

Category: PROCESSES OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

595. How does blue-white screening differentiate between transformed and non-transformed bacterial colonies?

596 / 1064

Category: PROCESSES OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

596. Which feature is NOT essential for a cloning vector?

597 / 1064

Category: PROCESSES OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

597. What is the function of restriction enzymes in recombinant DNA technology?

598 / 1064

Category: CLONING

598. During blue-white selection in cloning, what does the white colony color indicate?

599 / 1064

Category: CLONING

599. Which method of gene transfer involves coating microscopic particles with DNA and bombarding them into target cells?

600 / 1064

Category: CLONING

600. Which feature is essential for a DNA fragment to replicate independently within a host organism during cloning?

601 / 1064

Category: GENE LIBRARY

601. Why might a researcher choose to use a cDNA library instead of a genomic DNA library?

602 / 1064

Category: GENE LIBRARY

602. Which of the following statements accurately describes a cDNA library?

603 / 1064

Category: GENE LIBRARY

603. What is the primary characteristic of a genomic DNA library?

604 / 1064

Category: Small size.

604. Why is the small size of vectors like pBR322 advantageous for recombinant DNA technology?

605 / 1064

Category: Small size.

605. What is the primary advantage of using Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes (BACs) over Yeast Artificial Chromosomes (YACs)?

606 / 1064

Category: Small size.

606. Which of the following properties make plasmids suitable as cloning vectors?

607 / 1064

Category: Cloning sites.

607. What is the primary advantage of having a Multiple Cloning Site (MCS) in a vector?

608 / 1064

Category: Cloning sites.

608. In plasmid $pBR322$, insertion of foreign DNA into the $BamHI$ site leads to inactivation of which antibiotic resistance gene?

609 / 1064

Category: Cloning sites.

609. Which of the following restriction enzymes cuts the DNA sequence $5'GAATTC3'$ between G and A?

610 / 1064

Category: Selectable marker.

610. How does a reporter gene differ from a selectable marker in plant transformation?

611 / 1064

Category: Selectable marker.

611. In recombinant DNA technology, what is the primary role of a selectable marker gene?

612 / 1064

Category: Selectable marker.

612. A researcher clones a foreign DNA fragment into the tetracycline resistance gene of plasmid pBR322. What would be observed when transformants are plated on media containing both ampicillin and tetracycline?

613 / 1064

Category: Origin of replication (orl)

613. Why is an origin of replication essential in a cloning vector?

614 / 1064

Category: Origin of replication (orl)

614. How does the origin of replication influence the plasmid copy number in bacterial cells?

615 / 1064

Category: Origin of replication (orl)

615. What is the primary role of the origin of replication (ori) in a plasmid?

616 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

616. What is one major advantage of using a small-sized vector in recombinant DNA technology?

617 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

617. Why are selectable markers included in vectors used for recombinant DNA technology?

618 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

618. Which of the following is a critical feature required for a vector to ensure replication of foreign DNA within host cells?

619 / 1064

Category: Cloning vectors.

619. Which vector would be most suitable for cloning a 150 kb DNA fragment?

620 / 1064

Category: Cloning vectors.

620. What type of DNA ends are produced when EcoRI cuts DNA at its recognition site?

621 / 1064

Category: Cloning vectors.

621. Which feature is essential for a vector to be considered as an ideal cloning vector?

622 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

622. What is the key advantage of sticky ends over blunt ends in DNA ligation?

623 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

623. A palindromic sequence in DNA is characterized by:

624 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

624. Which type of restriction enzymes are most commonly used in gene manipulation studies due to their ability to cleave DNA at specific sites?

625 / 1064

Category: Enzymes.

625. What is the primary role of DNA ligase in recombinant DNA technology?

626 / 1064

Category: Enzymes.

626. A palindrome sequence in DNA is best described as:

627 / 1064

Category: Enzymes.

627. Which of the following is true about Type II restriction enzymes?

628 / 1064

Category: TOOLS OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

628. What is the primary function of primers in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)?

629 / 1064

Category: TOOLS OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

629. Which vector is most commonly used for cloning genes in plants?

630 / 1064

Category: TOOLS OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

630. Which of the following statements regarding restriction enzymes is correct?

631 / 1064

Category: MORAL AND ETHICAL ISSUES OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

631. If the initial number of DNA copies ($N_0$) is 1 and the PCR process undergoes 5 cycles ($n=5$), what will be the final number of DNA copies ($N$)?

632 / 1064

Category: MORAL AND ETHICAL ISSUES OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

632. What is a major ethical concern regarding genetic engineering in humans?

633 / 1064

Category: MORAL AND ETHICAL ISSUES OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

633. Which enzyme is known as "molecular scissors" in recombinant DNA technology?

634 / 1064

Category: RISKS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

634. Which enzyme is responsible for sealing the gaps between DNA fragments during recombinant DNA formation?

635 / 1064

Category: RISKS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

635. Which of the following is a potential ecological risk of releasing genetically modified organisms (GMOs)?

636 / 1064

Category: RISKS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

636. What is the primary function of restriction enzymes in recombinant DNA technology?

637 / 1064

Category: APPLICATIONS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

637. Which protein is produced using recombinant DNA technology for treating diabetes?

638 / 1064

Category: APPLICATIONS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

638. What does a cDNA library represent in genetic engineering?

639 / 1064

Category: APPLICATIONS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

639. Which enzyme is essential for cutting DNA molecules at specific sequences in recombinant DNA technology?

640 / 1064

Category: Downstream processing.

640. What does chromatography primarily separate molecules based on?

641 / 1064

Category: Downstream processing.

641. Which technique is commonly used first in downstream processing to remove solid particles from liquid culture?

642 / 1064

Category: Downstream processing.

642. What is the main purpose of downstream processing in biotechnology?

643 / 1064

Category: Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell/organism

643. Which method involves directly injecting DNA into the nucleus of a host cell using a fine glass needle?

644 / 1064

Category: Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell/organism

644. Which technique uses a brief electric pulse to create temporary pores in the cell membrane for DNA insertion?

645 / 1064

Category: Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell/organism

645. Which method involves treating cells with calcium chloride to make them competent for DNA uptake?

646 / 1064

Category: Amplification of gene of interest usin g PCR (polymerase chain reaction). M

646. If you start with one DNA molecule, how many copies will be produced after 5 complete PCR cycles?

647 / 1064

Category: Amplification of gene of interest usin g PCR (polymerase chain reaction). M

647. In PCR, what happens during the denaturation step?

648 / 1064

Category: Amplification of gene of interest usin g PCR (polymerase chain reaction). M

648. What is the function of primers in a PCR reaction?

649 / 1064

Category: Isolation of the genetic material (DNA)

649. Which chemical is used to stain DNA for visualization under UV light?

650 / 1064

Category: Isolation of the genetic material (DNA)

650. What substance is added to precipitate DNA after it has been purified from other macromolecules?

651 / 1064

Category: Isolation of the genetic material (DNA)

651. Which enzyme is commonly used to break open bacterial cells during DNA isolation?

652 / 1064

Category: Cutting of DNA at specific locations.

652. Which of the following is NOT a component required for PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?

653 / 1064

Category: Cutting of DNA at specific locations.

653. What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis in recombinant DNA technology?

654 / 1064

Category: Cutting of DNA at specific locations.

654. Which of the following is used to cut DNA at specific locations?

655 / 1064

Category: PROCESSES OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

655. Which feature is NOT necessary for a good cloning vector?

656 / 1064

Category: PROCESSES OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

656. Which enzyme is essential for joining DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds?

657 / 1064

Category: PROCESSES OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

657. What is the primary role of restriction enzymes in recombinant DNA technology?

658 / 1064

Category: CLONING

658. In the cloning process, what is the function of a selectable marker in a vector?

659 / 1064

Category: CLONING

659. Which of the following is a direct application of cloning in biotechnology?

660 / 1064

Category: CLONING

660. What is the primary purpose of a cloning vector in recombinant DNA technology?

661 / 1064

Category: GENE LIBRARY

661. Gene libraries are primarily used for:

662 / 1064

Category: GENE LIBRARY

662. Which type of gene library includes non-coding regions (introns)?

663 / 1064

Category: GENE LIBRARY

663. What is a gene library?

664 / 1064

Category: Small size.

664. What is the primary use of Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes (BACs)?

665 / 1064

Category: Small size.

665. Which of the following is a property of plasmids that makes them useful as cloning vectors?

666 / 1064

Category: Small size.

666. Why should a cloning vector be small in size?

667 / 1064

Category: Cloning sites.

667. In the plasmid $pBR322$, what happens when foreign DNA is inserted into the $BamHI$ site within the $tet^R$ gene?

668 / 1064

Category: Cloning sites.

668. Why is a Multiple Cloning Site (MCS) advantageous in a vector?

669 / 1064

Category: Cloning sites.

669. What is the primary function of restriction enzyme recognition sequences in a cloning site?

670 / 1064

Category: Selectable marker.

670. Why is blue-white selection preferred over antibiotic resistance-based selection for identifying recombinants?

671 / 1064

Category: Selectable marker.

671. In pBR322, if a foreign DNA is inserted into the Bam HI site of the tetracycline resistance gene, what happens to the recombinant plasmid?

672 / 1064

Category: Selectable marker.

672. What is the primary role of a selectable marker in recombinant DNA technology?

673 / 1064

Category: Origin of replication (orl)

673. Which of the following features is NOT typically found in an ideal cloning vector?

674 / 1064

Category: Origin of replication (orl)

674. Which plasmid is commonly referred to as the "work horse" of gene cloning due to its small size and antibiotic resistance genes?

675 / 1064

Category: Origin of replication (orl)

675. What is the primary function of the origin of replication (ori) in a plasmid vector?

676 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

676. Which of the following is an advantage of Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes (BACs) over Yeast Artificial Chromosomes (YACs)?

677 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

677. What is the primary purpose of a selectable marker in a cloning vector?

678 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

678. Which feature of an ideal vector ensures that it can replicate independently within the host cell?

679 / 1064

Category: Cloning vectors.

679. Why should a cloning vector have a single recognition site for a restriction enzyme?

680 / 1064

Category: Cloning vectors.

680. Which of the following is a common selectable marker used in cloning vectors for E. coli?

681 / 1064

Category: Cloning vectors.

681. What is the role of the origin of replication (ori) in a cloning vector?

682 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

682. Which type of restriction enzyme is most commonly used in gene manipulation studies?

683 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

683. Which of the following best describes a palindromic sequence in DNA?

684 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

684. What is the primary function of restriction enzymes in recombinant DNA technology?

685 / 1064

Category: Enzymes.

685. What is a palindromic sequence in DNA?

686 / 1064

Category: Enzymes.

686. Which enzyme is responsible for joining DNA fragments during the formation of recombinant DNA?

687 / 1064

Category: Enzymes.

687. What is the function of restriction enzymes in recombinant DNA technology?

688 / 1064

Category: TOOLS OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

688. Which component is NOT required for the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

689 / 1064

Category: TOOLS OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

689. What type of vector is commonly used to transfer DNA fragments into plant cells?

690 / 1064

Category: TOOLS OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

690. Which enzyme is known as the "molecular scissors" in recombinant DNA technology?

691 / 1064

Category: RECOMBINANT DNA (DNA) TECHNOLOGY [GENETIC ENGINEERING]

691. In a stirred-tank bioreactor used for recombinant protein production, what is the primary purpose of the sparger?

692 / 1064

Category: RECOMBINANT DNA (DNA) TECHNOLOGY [GENETIC ENGINEERING]

692. A scientist is attempting to introduce a recombinant DNA construct into mammalian cells. Which method would be most suitable for achieving high transformation efficiency without the use of viral vectors?

693 / 1064

Category: RECOMBINANT DNA (DNA) TECHNOLOGY [GENETIC ENGINEERING]

693. A researcher wants to clone a gene into a plasmid vector using the restriction enzyme Eco RI. The plasmid has a single Eco RI site within the lacZ gene. If the insertion is successful, what will be the outcome when the transformed bacteria are grown on media containing X-gal and IPTG?

694 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

694. In constructing a recombinant DNA plasmid, a scientist uses EcoRI to cut both the insert and the vector. However, after ligation, transformants fail to grow on ampicillin plates. What is the most likely explanation for this outcome?

695 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

695. A biotech company has developed a genetically modified cow that produces human growth hormone (hGH) in its milk. The hGH gene was inserted downstream of the cow's $\beta$-casein promoter. If this GM cow is bred, what is the most significant ethical concern regarding the offspring?

696 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

696. A researcher is attempting to develop a gene therapy for severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). The transgene of interest is cloned into a viral vector and introduced into hematopoietic stem cells. Which step in the process ensures that the transgene will be stably integrated into the host genome and passed to progeny cells?

697 / 1064

Category: RECOMBINANT DNA (DNA) TECHNOLOGY [GENETIC ENGINEERING]

697. Which of the following vectors is commonly used for gene transfer in plants?

698 / 1064

Category: RECOMBINANT DNA (DNA) TECHNOLOGY [GENETIC ENGINEERING]

698. What is the role of DNA ligase in recombinant DNA technology?

699 / 1064

Category: RECOMBINANT DNA (DNA) TECHNOLOGY [GENETIC ENGINEERING]

699. Which of the following statements about restriction enzymes is correct?

700 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

700. Which of the following is an example of a product derived from genetic engineering in medicine?

701 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

701. What is the primary function of restriction enzymes in genetic engineering?

702 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

702. Which enzyme is essential for joining the foreign DNA with vector DNA to form recombinant DNA?

703 / 1064

Category: RECOMBINANT DNA (DNA) TECHNOLOGY [GENETIC ENGINEERING]

703. Which of the following is a direct method of gene transfer in plants?

704 / 1064

Category: RECOMBINANT DNA (DNA) TECHNOLOGY [GENETIC ENGINEERING]

704. What type of cloning vector is used for transferring genes into plants?

705 / 1064

Category: RECOMBINANT DNA (DNA) TECHNOLOGY [GENETIC ENGINEERING]

705. Which enzyme is commonly referred to as "molecular scissors" in recombinant DNA technology?

706 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

706. Which method is commonly used for transferring genes into animal cells using retroviruses?

707 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

707. What type of gene library contains both introns and exons?

708 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

708. Which enzyme is crucial for joining DNA fragments together to form recombinant DNA?

709 / 1064

Category: PRINCIPLES OF BIOTECHNOLOGY

709. A scientist uses a restriction enzyme that recognizes the palindromic sequence 5'-GAATTC-3'. After digestion, how many DNA fragments will be produced if this enzyme cuts a linear DNA molecule with three such recognition sites?

710 / 1064

Category: PRINCIPLES OF BIOTECHNOLOGY

710. In bioprocess engineering, maintaining sterile conditions is crucial for large-scale production of biotechnological products. What is the primary reason for ensuring sterility during the fermentation process?

711 / 1064

Category: PRINCIPLES OF BIOTECHNOLOGY

711. A researcher is attempting to create a recombinant DNA molecule by inserting a human gene into a bacterial plasmid. Which of the following steps must be performed to ensure successful integration and expression of the human gene in the bacterial host?

712 / 1064

Category: PRINCIPLES OF BIOTECHNOLOGY

712. Which molecule is commonly used as a vector in recombinant DNA technology due to its ability to self-replicate and carry foreign genes?

713 / 1064

Category: PRINCIPLES OF BIOTECHNOLOGY

713. What is the primary purpose of maintaining sterile conditions in bioprocess engineering?

714 / 1064

Category: PRINCIPLES OF BIOTECHNOLOGY

714. Which of the following is a key advantage of genetic engineering over traditional breeding methods?

715 / 1064

Category: PRINCIPLES OF BIOTECHNOLOGY

715. Which enzyme is known as "molecular scissors" in genetic engineering?

716 / 1064

Category: PRINCIPLES OF BIOTECHNOLOGY

716. Which of the following is NOT part of genetic engineering techniques?

717 / 1064

Category: PRINCIPLES OF BIOTECHNOLOGY

717. Who coined the term biotechnology?

718 / 1064

Category: Maintenance of sterile (aseptic) conditions

718. During tissue culture, a technician notices fungal contamination in a culture flask despite using a laminar airflow hood. Which step was most likely overlooked in maintaining aseptic conditions?

719 / 1064

Category: Maintenance of sterile (aseptic) conditions

719. A researcher needs to disinfect a laminar airflow cabinet before starting an experiment. Which of the following agents would be most effective against both bacterial spores and enveloped viruses?

720 / 1064

Category: Maintenance of sterile (aseptic) conditions

720. A biotechnology lab is preparing sterile media for bacterial culture. The autoclave has malfunctioned, and the maximum temperature achievable is $115^\circ C$ at 15 psi. What is the minimum time required to achieve sterility under these conditions, considering standard parameters?

721 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

721. What is the primary advantage of using retroviruses for genetic transformation in animal cells?

722 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

722. Which method of gene transfer in plants does NOT require the use of a biological vector?

723 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

723. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the construction of recombinant DNA?

724 / 1064

Category: Core Principles

724. A scientist wants to produce large quantities of a therapeutic protein using E.coli. However, the protein gets degraded. What critical step might have been overlooked during cloning, and how can post-translational modifications affect eukaryotic protein production in prokaryotes?

725 / 1064

Category: Core Principles

725. In a biotech facility producing recombinant human insulin, contamination by other microbes led to poor yield. Which core principle of biotechnology was violated, and what measure could prevent this issue?

726 / 1064

Category: Core Principles

726. A researcher aims to create a gene library representing all expressed genes in liver tissue. Which type of library should the researcher construct and what enzyme is crucial for its preparation?

727 / 1064

Category: Genetic manipulations, recombinant DNA technology

727. Which of the following is a key feature of the $Ti$ plasmid from $Agrobacterium tumefaciens$ that makes it useful for plant genetic engineering?

728 / 1064

Category: Genetic manipulations, recombinant DNA technology

728. In constructing a gene library for a eukaryotic organism, why might a researcher prefer a cDNA library over a genomic DNA library when studying protein-coding regions?

729 / 1064

Category: Genetic manipulations, recombinant DNA technology

729. A researcher wants to create a recombinant DNA molecule using a plasmid vector and a human gene. The plasmid has a single restriction site for $EcoRI$, which recognizes the sequence GAATTC. If the human gene also has an $EcoRI$ site at both ends, which enzyme is required to join the plasmid and the human gene after digestion with $EcoRI$?

730 / 1064

Category: Fermentation, food preservation

730. In canned food spoilage, thermophilic bacteria like *Geobacillus stearothermophilus* survive pasteurization and cause flat-sour spoilage. What feature enables their survival despite high-temperature processing?

731 / 1064

Category: Fermentation, food preservation

731. A food scientist observes that adding lysozyme to a meat product extends its shelf life by inhibiting bacterial growth. Which mechanism best explains this preservation effect?

732 / 1064

Category: Fermentation, food preservation

732. In a bioreactor, yeast cells are fermenting glucose under anaerobic conditions. If the pH suddenly drops significantly due to organic acid accumulation, which metabolic shift is most likely to occur?

733 / 1064

Category: Traditional vs Modern Biotechnology

733. What is a key advantage of modern biotechnology over traditional biotechnology in agriculture?

734 / 1064

Category: Traditional vs Modern Biotechnology

734. Which of the following best describes a transgenic organism created using modern biotechnology?

735 / 1064

Category: Traditional vs Modern Biotechnology

735. A scientist wants to produce human insulin in bacteria. Which of the following steps is NOT involved in this process using modern biotechnology?

736 / 1064

Category: Use of biological processes for human welfare

736. A bioreactor is being used for large-scale production of monoclonal antibodies. Which parameter must be strictly controlled to maximize yield while maintaining cell viability?

737 / 1064

Category: Use of biological processes for human welfare

737. In the production of human insulin using recombinant DNA technology, what is the primary role of the plasmid vector?

738 / 1064

Category: Use of biological processes for human welfare

738. A biotechnology company plans to produce a recombinant protein in E. coli for therapeutic use. However, concerns arise regarding the accidental release of genetically modified bacteria into the environment. Which regulatory mechanism is primarily responsible for evaluating such risks?

739 / 1064

Category: Technology using living organisms, enzymes, or biological systems

739. A researcher uses EcoRI to cut a DNA fragment but observes incomplete digestion. What could be the most likely reason for this outcome?

740 / 1064

Category: Technology using living organisms, enzymes, or biological systems

740. In a stirred-tank bioreactor, which condition is NOT critical for maintaining optimal large-scale production of recombinant proteins?

741 / 1064

Category: Technology using living organisms, enzymes, or biological systems

741. A scientist wants to produce human insulin using recombinant DNA technology. Which of the following steps must be performed to ensure successful production in E. coli?

742 / 1064

Category: Introduction to Biotechnology

742. In blue-white screening using pUC19 vector, white colonies indicate:

743 / 1064

Category: Introduction to Biotechnology

743. In a stirred tank bioreactor, what is the primary purpose of the sparger?

744 / 1064

Category: Introduction to Biotechnology

744. Which of the following best describes the role of restriction enzymes in recombinant DNA technology?

745 / 1064

Category: Maintenance of sterile (aseptic) conditions

745. Which disinfectant is commonly used to decontaminate surfaces in a biosafety cabinet?

746 / 1064

Category: Maintenance of sterile (aseptic) conditions

746. Which of the following practices helps maintain aseptic conditions during microbial culturing?

747 / 1064

Category: Maintenance of sterile (aseptic) conditions

747. What is the primary purpose of using an autoclave in a biotechnology laboratory?

748 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

748. Which enzyme is commonly referred to as "molecular scissors" in genetic engineering?

749 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

749. What allows gene transfer between different organisms due to its universal nature?

750 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

750. Which of the following is NOT a core technique in modern biotechnology?

751 / 1064

Category: Core Principles

751. Which of the following best describes a cDNA library?

752 / 1064

Category: Core Principles

752. What is the primary purpose of genetic engineering in biotechnology?

753 / 1064

Category: Genetic manipulations, recombinant DNA technology

753. Which of the following is a vectorless method for introducing foreign DNA into plant cells?

754 / 1064

Category: Genetic manipulations, recombinant DNA technology

754. Which vector is commonly used for cloning large DNA fragments in yeast?

755 / 1064

Category: Genetic manipulations, recombinant DNA technology

755. Which of the following statements about restriction enzymes is correct?

756 / 1064

Category: Fermentation, food preservation

756. In lactic acid fermentation, what is the main product formed from glucose?

757 / 1064

Category: Fermentation, food preservation

757. Which of the following methods does NOT help in food preservation by inhibiting microbial growth?

758 / 1064

Category: Fermentation, food preservation

758. What is the primary role of yeast in alcoholic fermentation?

759 / 1064

Category: Traditional vs Modern Biotechnology

759. Which technique is essential in modern biotechnology for creating recombinant DNA?

760 / 1064

Category: Traditional vs Modern Biotechnology

760. What is the key difference between traditional and modern biotechnology?

761 / 1064

Category: Traditional vs Modern Biotechnology

761. Which of the following is an example of traditional biotechnology?

762 / 1064

Category: Use of biological processes for human welfare

762. Which organization in India regulates the ethical use of genetic engineering?

763 / 1064

Category: Use of biological processes for human welfare

763. What is a major application of biotechnology in medicine?

764 / 1064

Category: Use of biological processes for human welfare

764. Which technology allows the transfer of desirable genes into a host organism without introducing unwanted genes?

765 / 1064

Category: Technology using living organisms, enzymes, or biological systems

765. What is the purpose of maintaining a sterile ambience in biotechnology processes?

766 / 1064

Category: Technology using living organisms, enzymes, or biological systems

766. Which of the following best describes a transgenic organism?

767 / 1064

Category: Technology using living organisms, enzymes, or biological systems

767. What is the primary tool used in genetic engineering to cut DNA at specific sequences?

768 / 1064

Category: Introduction to Biotechnology

768. How is a transgenic organism created?

769 / 1064

Category: Introduction to Biotechnology

769. Which of the following best describes the purpose of maintaining a sterile environment in bioprocess engineering?

770 / 1064

Category: Introduction to Biotechnology

770. What is the primary function of restriction enzymes in genetic engineering?

771 / 1064

Category: Maintenance of sterile (aseptic) conditions

771. Why is sterility important in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)?

772 / 1064

Category: Maintenance of sterile (aseptic) conditions

772. Which component of a bioreactor helps maintain sterile conditions using steam?

773 / 1064

Category: Maintenance of sterile (aseptic) conditions

773. What is the purpose of heat shock treatment in genetic engineering?

774 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

774. In genetic engineering, what is a vector primarily used for?

775 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

775. Which enzyme is commonly used to cut DNA at specific sequences during genetic engineering?

776 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

776. What is the main purpose of genetic engineering?

777 / 1064

Category: Core Principles

777. What is produced through gene cloning?

778 / 1064

Category: Core Principles

778. Which type of gene library represents only exons?

779 / 1064

Category: Core Principles

779. What is the primary purpose of genetic engineering?

780 / 1064

Category: Genetic manipulations, recombinant DNA technology

780. What is the role of DNA ligase in recombinant DNA technology?

781 / 1064

Category: Genetic manipulations, recombinant DNA technology

781. Which of the following vectors is commonly used for cloning large DNA fragments in yeast?

782 / 1064

Category: Genetic manipulations, recombinant DNA technology

782. What is the function of restriction enzymes in recombinant DNA technology?

783 / 1064

Category: Fermentation, food preservation

783. What gas is commonly released during bread fermentation?

784 / 1064

Category: Fermentation, food preservation

784. Which microorganism is commonly used in yogurt fermentation?

785 / 1064

Category: Fermentation, food preservation

785. What is the primary purpose of fermentation in food production?

786 / 1064

Category: Traditional vs Modern Biotechnology

786. What is the main difference between traditional and modern biotechnology?

787 / 1064

Category: Traditional vs Modern Biotechnology

787. Which of the following is an example of traditional biotechnology?

788 / 1064

Category: Traditional vs Modern Biotechnology

788. Which of the following best defines biotechnology according to the European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB)?

789 / 1064

Category: Use of biological processes for human welfare

789. Which product is commonly produced using biotechnology?

790 / 1064

Category: Use of biological processes for human welfare

790. Which of the following best describes a Genetically Modified Organism (GMO)?

791 / 1064

Category: Use of biological processes for human welfare

791. What is biotechnology primarily concerned with?

792 / 1064

Category: Technology using living organisms, enzymes, or biological systems

792. What is a transgenic organism?

793 / 1064

Category: Technology using living organisms, enzymes, or biological systems

793. Which enzyme is used to join DNA fragments during recombinant DNA technology?

794 / 1064

Category: Technology using living organisms, enzymes, or biological systems

794. What is the main purpose of genetic engineering in biotechnology?

795 / 1064

Category: Introduction to Biotechnology

795. Which of these is an example of genetic engineering?

796 / 1064

Category: Introduction to Biotechnology

796. What is the purpose of genetic engineering?

797 / 1064

Category: Introduction to Biotechnology

797. Who coined the term 'biotechnology' and when?

798 / 1064

Category: National Biotechnology Regulatory Authority

798. (A) The National Biotechnology Regulatory Authority (NBRA) mandates stringent post-market monitoring for all genetically modified organisms (GMOs).
(R) Post-market monitoring ensures continuous assessment of GMO impacts on human health and the environment after commercialization.

799 / 1064

Category: GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee)

799. (A) The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) strictly prohibits the use of genetic engineering for human cloning due to potential ethical violations.
(R) Human cloning raises serious moral and social issues, such as the problem of raising a cloned child without biological parents and violation of individuality.

800 / 1064

Category: Regulatory Bodies

800. (A) The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) approves large-scale use of GMOs after ensuring compliance with environmental safety standards.
(R) The GEAC operates under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) to prevent unintended ecological consequences of genetically modified organisms.

801 / 1064

Category: Ethical Concerns

801. (A) Cloning humans can lead to severe social and ethical issues, including the challenge of raising a cloned baby without parents.
(R) The GEAC was established by the Indian Government to regulate genetic engineering activities and ensure ethical considerations are addressed.

802 / 1064

Category: Biosafety Levels

802. (A) BSL-4 laboratories require the use of full-body, air-supplied suits because agents handled at this level can cause life-threatening diseases through inhalation.
(R) BSL-4 agents pose a high risk of transmission via aerosols and have no available vaccines or treatments.

803 / 1064

Category: Safety, Ethical, and Regulatory Issues

803. (A) Genetic screening for behavioral patterns can lead to unethical discrimination because it reveals personal genetic information.
(R) Knowledge of an individual's genetic traits can be misused by employers or insurers to deny opportunities or coverage.

804 / 1064

Category: National Biotechnology Regulatory Authority

804. (A) The National Biotechnology Regulatory Authority enforces biosafety guidelines for genetically modified organisms.

(R) Biosafety guidelines prevent unintended ecological disruptions caused by GMOs.

805 / 1064

Category: GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee)

805. (A) The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) regulates the use of genetically modified organisms to ensure ethical and safety standards are met.
(R) GEAC was established by the Indian Government to prevent misuse of genetic engineering that could lead to social discrimination or violation of human rights.

806 / 1064

Category: Regulatory Bodies

806. (A) The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) is responsible for approving large-scale use of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) in India.
(R) GEAC operates under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to ensure environmental safety and ethical compliance in genetic engineering projects.

807 / 1064

Category: Ethical Concerns

807. (A) Human cloning raises ethical concerns about individuality and the sanctity of human life.
(R) Cloning creates genetically identical humans, which may lead to social and psychological challenges.

808 / 1064

Category: Biosafety Levels

808. (A) BSL-4 laboratories require the use of positive pressure suits to prevent accidental exposure to airborne pathogens.
(R) BSL-4 agents are highly infectious and can cause fatal diseases through inhalation.

809 / 1064

Category: Safety, Ethical, and Regulatory Issues

809. (A) Knowledge of an individual's genetic traits can lead to social discrimination if misused.
(R) Genetic information about behavioral patterns or diseases may violate an individual's rights.

810 / 1064

Category: National Biotechnology Regulatory Authority

810. (A) The National Biotechnology Regulatory Authority (NBRA) ensures the safe and ethical use of genetically modified organisms (GMOs).
(R) NBRA evaluates potential environmental and health risks associated with GMOs before their approval.

811 / 1064

Category: GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee)

811. (A) The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) is responsible for regulating genetic modification research in India.
(R) GEAC ensures the ethical use of genetically modified organisms to protect human rights and prevent social discrimination.

812 / 1064

Category: Regulatory Bodies

812. (A) The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) evaluates the validity of genetically modified research and ensures public safety.
(R) GEAC is responsible for making decisions regarding the ethical and safety aspects of genetic engineering applications.

813 / 1064

Category: Ethical Concerns

813. (A) Genetic engineering can lead to social discrimination based on an individual's genetic traits.

(R) Knowledge of genes related to behavioral patterns or diseases may result in unethical practices like denial of employment or health insurance.

814 / 1064

Category: Biosafety Levels

814. (A) BSL-1 is the lowest biosafety level used for working with non-pathogenic microorganisms.
(R) BSL-1 requires minimal containment measures because the agents used are not known to cause disease in healthy humans.

815 / 1064

Category: Safety, Ethical, and Regulatory Issues

815. (A) Identification of genetic diseases can lead to social discrimination.
(R) Knowledge of genetic diseases can be misused in employment and health insurance.

816 / 1064

Category: Design Features

816. (A) In fed-batch culture, the growth rate can be maintained at $\mu_{max}$ indefinitely by continuously adding substrate to prevent substrate limitation.
(R) According to the Monod equation, when the substrate concentration $S$ is much greater than $K_s$, the growth rate approaches $\mu_{max}$.

817 / 1064

Category: Bioreactors

817. (A) Sparged stirred-tank bioreactors exhibit higher oxygen transfer efficiency compared to simple stirred-tank bioreactors due to the presence of a sparger.
(R) The sparger increases the interfacial area for oxygen transfer by introducing air or oxygen bubbles into the culture medium.

818 / 1064

Category: Culture Techniques in Biotechnology

818. (A) The specific growth rate ($\mu$) of a microorganism in a bioreactor will always reach $\mu_{max}$ when the substrate concentration $[S]$ is much greater than the saturation constant $K_s$.
(R) According to the Monod equation, $\mu = \mu_{max} \frac{[S]}{K_s + [S]}$, when $[S] \gg K_s$, the term $\frac{[S]}{K_s + [S]}$ approaches 1.

819 / 1064

Category: Design Features

819. (A) Maintaining sterility in culture techniques ensures the absence of contaminants, which can alter the pH of the medium.
(R) Contaminants may produce metabolic byproducts that change the pH of the culture medium, affecting cell growth.

820 / 1064

Category: Bioreactors

820. (A) The agitator system in a bioreactor ensures even mixing and oxygen availability for aerobic cultures.
(R) Even mixing prevents the formation of concentration gradients, ensuring uniform nutrient distribution and optimal microbial growth.

821 / 1064

Category: Aseptic Techniques

821. (A) Continuous culture systems are preferred over small-scale cultures for industrial protein production due to their ability to maintain a steady state of nutrients and waste removal.
(R) In continuous culture systems, the used medium is drained out while fresh medium is added continuously, ensuring optimal conditions for cell growth.

822 / 1064

Category: Culture Techniques in Biotechnology

822. (A) Stirred-tank bioreactors are commonly used in large-scale biotechnological production because they ensure uniform mixing of the culture medium.
(R) The agitator system in stirred-tank bioreactors facilitates even distribution of oxygen and nutrients, which is essential for optimal cell growth.

823 / 1064

Category: Design Features

823. (A) Laminar airflow hoods are used in biotechnological culture techniques to maintain sterile conditions.
(R) Contamination by unwanted microorganisms can affect the growth and productivity of the desired culture.

824 / 1064

Category: Bioreactors

824. (A) A sparged stirred-tank bioreactor includes a sparger for introducing air or oxygen into the culture medium.
(R) The sparger increases the surface area for oxygen transfer, enhancing aerobic conditions in the bioreactor.

825 / 1064

Category: Aseptic Techniques

825. (A) Sterilization ensures all microorganisms are destroyed.
(R) Autoclaving is commonly used to sterilize culture media.

826 / 1064

Category: Culture Techniques in Biotechnology

826. (A) Bioreactors are used for large-scale production of biotechnological products.
(R) Bioreactors provide optimal growth conditions such as temperature, pH, and oxygen.

827 / 1064

Category: Reporter Genes

827. (A) The blue-white selection method is more efficient for screening recombinants in plasmid vectors compared to antibiotic resistance selection.
(R) Blue-white selection relies on the disruption of the $\beta$-galactosidase gene leading to a color change in the presence of X-gal, which is a direct visual indicator of recombinant colonies.

828 / 1064

Category: Blue–White Screening

828. (A) In blue-white screening, white colonies indicate successful insertion of foreign DNA into the $lacZ$ gene.
(R) The $lacZ$ gene encodes $\beta$-galactosidase, which hydrolyzes X-gal to produce a blue product only when the gene is intact and functional.

829 / 1064

Category: Selectable Markers

829. (A) In the vector pBR322, insertion of foreign DNA at the BamHI site of the tetracycline resistance gene will lead to loss of ampicillin resistance in recombinants.
(R) The recombinant plasmids can still be selected on ampicillin-containing medium because the ampicillin resistance gene remains functional.

830 / 1064

Category: Selection and Screening of Recombinants

830. (A) In a cloning experiment using the vector $pBR322$, insertion of foreign DNA at the $BamHI$ site of the tetracycline resistance ($tet^R$) gene results in recombinants that produce white colonies on X-gal medium.
(R) The $\beta$-galactosidase gene is disrupted upon insertion of foreign DNA at the $BamHI$ site, leading to the inactivation of the enzyme and production of white colonies.

831 / 1064

Category: Reporter Genes

831. (A) The insertion of foreign DNA at the $Bam HI$ site of tetracycline resistance gene ($tet^R$) in the vector $pBR322$ will result in loss of tetracycline resistance in recombinant plasmids.
(R) The $Bam HI$ restriction site lies within the $tet^R$ gene, and insertion of foreign DNA disrupts its function.

832 / 1064

Category: Blue–White Screening

832. (A) White colonies in blue-white screening indicate successful insertion of foreign DNA into the plasmid.
(R) The insertion of foreign DNA disrupts the $\textit{lacZ}$ gene, preventing the production of functional $\beta$-galactosidase.

833 / 1064

Category: Selectable Markers

833. (A) The tetracycline resistance gene in vector $pBR322$ can be used as a selectable marker to identify recombinants.
(R) When foreign DNA is inserted into the $BamHI$ site of the tetracycline resistance gene in $pBR322$, it inactivates the gene, allowing selection of recombinants on ampicillin-containing medium.

834 / 1064

Category: Selection and Screening of Recombinants

834. (A) In the plasmid pBR322, insertion of foreign DNA at the BamHI site disrupts the tetracycline resistance gene ($tet^R$), resulting in loss of tetracycline resistance.
(R) The recombinant plasmids retain ampicillin resistance ($amp^R$) and can grow on ampicillin-containing medium, whereas non-recombinants grow on both ampicillin and tetracycline.

835 / 1064

Category: Reporter Genes

835. (A) Antibiotic resistance genes help in selecting transformed host cells.
(R) Non-transformants will not grow on antibiotic-containing media due to the absence of resistance genes.

836 / 1064

Category: Blue–White Screening

836. (A) In Blue-White screening, white colonies indicate the presence of recombinant plasmids.
(R) White colonies form because the $\beta$-galactosidase enzyme is functional and hydrolyzes X-gal.

837 / 1064

Category: Selectable Markers

837. (A) The tetracycline resistance gene in $pBR322$ vector is used as a selectable marker.
(R) Selectable markers help in identifying and eliminating non-transformants while permitting the growth of transformants.

838 / 1064

Category: Selection and Screening of Recombinants

838. (A) In the vector pBR322, recombinants can be identified by their inability to grow on tetracycline-containing medium.
(R) The foreign DNA is ligated at the $BamHI$ site of the tetracycline resistance gene ($tet^R$) in pBR322.

839 / 1064

Category: Ligation of DNA Fragments

839. (A) During the ligation process in recombinant DNA technology, T$_4$ phage DNA ligase is more efficient at joining DNA fragments with blunt ends compared to E. coli DNA ligase.
(R) T$_4$ phage DNA ligase requires ATP as a cofactor and can join both sticky ends and blunt ends, whereas E. coli DNA ligase primarily relies on NAD$^+$ and is less effective for blunt-end ligation.

840 / 1064

Category: Steps in rDNA Formation

840. (A) During PCR amplification, the annealing step must be performed at a temperature lower than the melting temperature (T$_m$) of the primers to ensure specific binding.
(R) If the annealing temperature is too high, non-specific binding of primers to the template DNA may occur, leading to amplification of unintended sequences.

841 / 1064

Category: DNA Cloning and Recombinant DNA Technology

841. (A) Restriction enzymes are used to cut DNA at specific sequences.
(R) Restriction enzymes recognize palindromic sequences in the DNA.

842 / 1064

Category: Insertion of rDNA into Host

842. (A) Electroporation is a commonly used method to introduce recombinant DNA into bacterial cells.
(R) Electroporation increases the permeability of the cell membrane by exposing it to an electric field, allowing foreign DNA to enter the host cell.

843 / 1064

Category: Ligation of DNA Fragments

843. (A) $T_4$ DNA ligase can join blunt-ended DNA fragments as efficiently as sticky-ended fragments.
(R) Blunt-end ligation requires higher enzyme concentration and longer incubation time compared to sticky-end ligation due to lack of complementary overhangs.

844 / 1064

Category: Steps in rDNA Formation

844. (A) Restriction enzymes are essential for cutting DNA at specific recognition sites during recombinant DNA technology.
(R) They generate sticky ends which facilitate the ligation of DNA fragments into vectors by DNA ligase.

845 / 1064

Category: DNA Cloning and Recombinant DNA Technology

845. (A) The restriction enzyme $EcoRI$ cuts DNA only at the sequence GAATTC.
(R) Restriction enzymes are highly specific and recognize palindromic sequences to cut DNA.

846 / 1064

Category: Insertion of rDNA into Host

846. (A) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is commonly used to transfer foreign DNA into dicotyledonous plants.
(R) The Ti plasmid in Agrobacterium tumefaciens can integrate T-DNA into the plant genome.

847 / 1064

Category: Ligation of DNA Fragments

847. (A) DNA ligase is essential for joining DNA fragments during recombinant DNA technology.
(R) DNA ligase seals the nicks in the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA by forming phosphodiester bonds.

848 / 1064

Category: Steps in rDNA Formation

848. (A) Lysozyme is used to isolate DNA from bacterial cells.
(R) Lysozyme breaks down the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls, releasing cellular contents including DNA.

849 / 1064

Category: DNA Cloning and Recombinant DNA Technology

849. (A) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific sequences.
(R) They are used to create recombinant DNA by cutting the vector and foreign DNA at recognition sites.

850 / 1064

Category: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

850. (A) The use of Taq polymerase in PCR ensures that the enzyme remains functional even after repeated exposure to high temperatures during denaturation steps.
(R) Taq polymerase is derived from Thermus aquaticus and exhibits thermostability due to its ability to withstand temperatures above $90^\circ C$ without denaturation.

851 / 1064

Category: Amplification of Gene of Interest

851. (A) The denaturation step in PCR requires a temperature of approximately 94°C to ensure complete separation of the DNA double helix into single strands.
(R) Hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs are strong and require high temperatures to break completely.

852 / 1064

Category: Cutting of DNA

852. (A) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific palindromic sequences because these sequences are easier to recognize and bind.
(R) Palindromic sequences in DNA have the same base pairing when read from both 5' to 3' and 3' to 5' directions, allowing restriction enzymes to identify and cleave them efficiently.

853 / 1064

Category: Techniques Used in Genetic Engineering

853. (A) Restriction enzymes like $EcoRI$ cut DNA at specific palindromic sequences, producing sticky ends that are essential for creating recombinant DNA.
(R) The sticky ends generated by restriction enzymes facilitate the annealing of complementary DNA strands during PCR amplification.

854 / 1064

Category: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

854. (A) Taq polymerase is used in PCR because it remains active at high temperatures.
(R) Taq polymerase is derived from a thermophilic bacterium, Thermus aquaticus, which thrives in hot environments.

855 / 1064

Category: Amplification of Gene of Interest

855. (A) Taq polymerase is used in PCR because it remains active at high temperatures.
(R) Taq polymerase is derived from thermophilic bacteria and can withstand the denaturation temperature of $94^\circ C$.

856 / 1064

Category: Cutting of DNA

856. (A) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at palindromic sequences because these sequences have a symmetrical structure.
(R) The symmetry of palindromic sequences allows the same enzyme to recognize and cut both strands of DNA at the same location.

857 / 1064

Category: Isolation of Genetic Material (DNA)

857. (A) Lysozyme is used to break down the cell wall of bacterial cells during DNA isolation.
(R) Lysozyme specifically degrades peptidoglycan, which is a major component of bacterial cell walls.

858 / 1064

Category: Techniques Used in Genetic Engineering

858. (A) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific sites, creating fragments with sticky ends or blunt ends.
(R) Sticky ends are preferred in genetic engineering because they facilitate the joining of DNA fragments by complementary base pairing.

859 / 1064

Category: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

859. (A) Taq polymerase is used in PCR because it remains stable at high temperatures.
(R) Taq polymerase is derived from Thermus aquaticus, a bacterium that thrives in hot springs.

860 / 1064

Category: Amplification of Gene of Interest

860. (A) PCR involves three main steps: denaturation, annealing, and extension.
(R) Denaturation separates the DNA strands by heating them to approximately $94^\circ C$.

861 / 1064

Category: Cutting of DNA

861. (A) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific palindromic sequences.
(R) Restriction enzymes recognize and cleave DNA at unique nucleotide sequences.

862 / 1064

Category: Isolation of Genetic Material (DNA)

862. (A) Lysozyme is used to isolate genomic DNA from bacterial cells.
(R) Lysozyme breaks down the bacterial cell wall.

863 / 1064

Category: Techniques Used in Genetic Engineering

863. (A) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is used to amplify a specific DNA sequence.
(R) PCR involves repeated cycles of denaturation, annealing, and extension using primers, DNA polymerase, and nucleotides.

864 / 1064

Category: Liposome-mediated transfer

864. (A) Liposomes prepared from $phosphatidyl choline$ and $stearylamine$ via reverse-phase evaporation efficiently protect entrapped nucleic acids from nuclease degradation.
(R) The phospholipid bilayer of liposomes acts as a physical barrier, preventing nucleases from accessing the encapsulated DNA.

865 / 1064

Category: Gene gun (biolistic method)

865. (A) The gene gun method is highly efficient for transforming cereal crops like maize and wheat because it allows DNA-coated particles to penetrate multiple cell layers without requiring protoplast isolation.
(R) The membranes of cells penetrated by microprojectiles reseal quickly, enabling the cells to regenerate cell walls and develop into fully transformed plants.

866 / 1064

Category: Microinjection

866. (A) Microinjection is highly efficient for gene transfer because it delivers DNA directly into the nucleus.
(R) Direct delivery of DNA into the nucleus ensures higher integration rates compared to methods like electroporation.

867 / 1064

Category: Electroporation

867. (A) Electroporation causes irreversible damage to the plasma membrane of plant protoplasts.
(R) High-voltage pulses create pores in the plasma membrane that permanently destabilize its structure.

868 / 1064

Category: Calcium chloride treatment

868. (A) Treating bacterial cells with calcium chloride ($Ca^{2+}$) increases their permeability to recombinant DNA by creating transient pores in the cell wall and membrane.

(R) $Ca^{2+}$ neutralizes the repulsive forces between the negatively charged DNA and the cell membrane, facilitating DNA uptake during heat shock treatment.

869 / 1064

Category: Methods to Make Cells Competent

869. (A) The calcium chloride treatment method is essential for making bacterial cells competent to take up recombinant DNA because it enhances the permeability of the cell wall.
(R) Calcium ions neutralize the negative charges on both the DNA and the cell membrane, reducing electrostatic repulsion and allowing DNA to enter the cell.

870 / 1064

Category: Known genetics

870. (A) The discovery of restriction enzymes was crucial for the development of gene cloning technology.
(R) Restriction enzymes allow for the precise cutting of DNA at specific sequences, which is essential for inserting foreign DNA into vectors.

871 / 1064

Category: Fast replication

871. (A) Denaturation in PCR requires heating to 94°C to separate DNA strands, but Taq polymerase remains functional at this temperature.
(R) Taq polymerase is thermostable and does not denature at high temperatures, allowing it to synthesize new DNA strands during subsequent extension steps.

872 / 1064

Category: Easy to culture

872. (A) The continuous culture system in bioreactors is more efficient than batch culture for producing large quantities of recombinant proteins.
(R) In a continuous culture system, the used medium is continuously replaced with fresh medium, maintaining optimal growth conditions and increasing biomass yield.

873 / 1064

Category: Competent Host (Microbial Host)

873. (A) The calcium chloride method increases the efficiency of DNA uptake in bacterial cells by creating transient pores in the cell membrane.
(R) Calcium ions ($Ca^{2+}$) neutralize the negative charges on the DNA and cell membrane, facilitating DNA entry through heat shock treatment.

874 / 1064

Category: Common Vectors Used

874. (A) The plasmid pBR322 is an ideal vector for cloning because it contains two different antibiotic resistance genes as selectable markers.
(R) The presence of multiple selectable markers in pBR322 allows for the selection of recombinants by insertional inactivation of one marker while maintaining the other for positive selection.

875 / 1064

Category: YACs (Yeast artificial chromosomes)

875. (A) YACs are more stable than BACs due to their eukaryotic origin.
(R) Yeast Artificial Chromosomes contain telomeric, centromeric, and replication origin sequences that enhance stability in eukaryotic hosts.

876 / 1064

Category: BACs (Bacterial artificial chromosomes)

876. (A) BACs are more stable than YACs because they maintain a low copy number due to the properties of the F-plasmid.

(R) The presence of par A and par B sites in BACs ensures proper segregation during cell division, contributing to their stability.

877 / 1064

Category: Types of Vectors

877. (A) The T-DNA region of the Ti plasmid integrates into the host plant genome, transforming normal cells into tumor cells.
(R) The Ti plasmid contains genes that encode for enzymes responsible for cytokinin and auxin biosynthesis.

878 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

878. (A) The presence of multiple restriction enzyme recognition sites in a vector complicates the cloning process.
(R) Multiple recognition sites increase the chances of unintended DNA insertions, making it difficult to achieve precise cloning.

879 / 1064

Category: Cloning Vectors

879. (A) The blue-white selection method in pUC vectors relies on the inactivation of the lac Z gene by insertion of foreign DNA into the multiple cloning site (MCS).
(R) The lac Z gene in pUC vectors produces $\beta$-galactosidase, which cleaves X-gal to form a blue-colored product, and its disruption prevents color formation, allowing for recombinant identification.

880 / 1064

Category: Cleavage Patterns

880. (A) Type II restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific palindromic sequences and produce sticky ends.
(R) The recognition sites of Type II restriction enzymes are palindromic because the enzyme cuts both strands of DNA between the same two bases on opposite strands.

881 / 1064

Category: Recognition Sequences

881. (A) All restriction enzymes that recognize palindromic sequences and produce sticky ends are classified as Type II enzymes.
(R) Type II restriction enzymes are the only class of restriction enzymes that cleave DNA at specific recognition sequences, making them essential for genetic engineering.

882 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

882. (A) Type II restriction enzymes are preferred for genetic engineering because they cleave DNA at specific palindromic sequences.
(R) The ability of Type II enzymes to create sticky ends with complementary overhangs facilitates the formation of recombinant DNA.

883 / 1064

Category: Discovery

883. (A) The restriction enzyme EcoRI recognizes and cuts the palindromic sequence GAATTC, producing sticky ends.
(R) Palindrome sequences are essential for restriction enzymes to recognize and cut DNA because they read the same on both strands when oriented in the same direction.

884 / 1064

Category: Restriction Enzymes (Molecular Scissors)

884. (A) Sticky ends produced by restriction enzymes facilitate the ligation of DNA fragments because they have complementary overhangs.
(R) DNA ligase can join sticky ends more efficiently than blunt ends due to hydrogen bonding between complementary bases.

885 / 1064

Category: This is one of the core sections of the chapter.

885. (A) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at palindromic sequences to produce sticky ends, which are essential for recombinant DNA technology.

(R) Sticky ends allow complementary base pairing between DNA fragments from different sources, facilitated by DNA ligase.

886 / 1064

Category: Basic Tools of Genetic Engineering

886. (A) Restriction enzymes are used to cut DNA at specific palindromic sequences, enabling the formation of recombinant DNA when combined with DNA ligase.
(R) DNA ligase can join any two DNA fragments regardless of their sequence, but restriction enzymes ensure precise cutting for accurate ligation.

887 / 1064

Category: Liposome-mediated transfer

887. (A) Liposomes protect DNA from enzymatic degradation during gene transfer.
(R) Liposomes encapsulate foreign DNA, shielding it from nucleases.

888 / 1064

Category: Gene gun (biolistic method)

888. (A) The gene gun method is widely used for genetic transformation in cereals because it enables penetration of multiple cell layers.
(R) Gold or tungsten particles coated with DNA can penetrate several cell layers and reach the nucleus, facilitating transformation.

889 / 1064

Category: Microinjection

889. (A) Microinjection is a highly precise method of introducing foreign DNA into host cells.
(R) It allows direct injection of DNA into the nucleus of target cells under controlled pressure.

890 / 1064

Category: Electroporation

890. (A) Electroporation is an effective method for introducing foreign DNA into plant protoplasts because it uses high-voltage electrical pulses to create temporary pores in the plasma membrane.
(R) The temporary pores allow DNA to diffuse into the cells, and the membranes reseal afterwards, enabling successful transformation.

891 / 1064

Category: Calcium chloride treatment

891. (A) Treating bacterial cells with calcium chloride at 0°–5°C increases their competence to take up foreign DNA.
(R) Calcium chloride treatment creates transient pores in the bacterial cell membrane, facilitating DNA uptake.

892 / 1064

Category: Methods to Make Cells Competent

892. (A) Treating bacterial cells with calcium ions at $4^\circ C$ increases their competence for DNA uptake.
(R) Calcium ions create pores in the cell wall, allowing hydrophilic DNA molecules to pass through.

893 / 1064

Category: Known genetics

893. (A) Restriction enzymes are essential for gene cloning as they allow specific cleavage of DNA sequences.
(R) Restriction enzymes recognize and cut palindromic nucleotide sequences in DNA.

894 / 1064

Category: Fast replication

894. (A) Taq polymerase is essential for PCR because it can withstand high temperatures used during denaturation.
(R) Taq polymerase is derived from Thermus aquaticus, a bacterium that thrives in hot springs.

895 / 1064

Category: Easy to culture

895. (A) Escherichia coli is commonly used in genetic engineering because it is easy to culture.
(R) E. coli can rapidly multiply under optimized laboratory conditions and has simple nutritional requirements.

896 / 1064

Category: Competent Host (Microbial Host)

896. (A) Treatment of bacterial cells with calcium ions increases the efficiency of DNA uptake during transformation.
(R) Calcium ions create transient pores in the bacterial cell wall, allowing foreign DNA to enter.

897 / 1064

Category: Common Vectors Used

897. (A) pUC vectors are commonly used for cloning due to their antibiotic resistance markers and multiple cloning sites.
(R) The presence of the lac Z gene in pUC vectors allows for blue-white selection of recombinant colonies.

898 / 1064

Category: YACs (Yeast artificial chromosomes)

898. (A) Yeast Artificial Chromosomes (YACs) are more efficient than plasmids for cloning large eukaryotic DNA fragments.
(R) YACs can accommodate DNA inserts up to 1 million bases in size, making them suitable for large-scale genome projects.

899 / 1064

Category: BACs (Bacterial artificial chromosomes)

899. (A) BACs are more stable than YACs because they maintain a low copy number in host cells.
(R) The stability of BACs is attributed to the replication control by F-plasmids, which ensures a low copy number.

900 / 1064

Category: Types of Vectors

900. (A) Plasmids are commonly used as cloning vectors in genetic engineering.
(R) Plasmids can replicate independently of the host chromosome and often carry antibiotic resistance genes.

901 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

901. (A) A plasmid vector must contain an origin of replication (ori) to ensure its autonomous replication within the host cell.
(R) The ori sequence determines the copy number of the plasmid and ensures stable inheritance during cell division.

902 / 1064

Category: Cloning Vectors

902. (A) The plasmid pBR322 is a commonly used cloning vector because it contains two antibiotic resistance genes.
(R) The presence of multiple antibiotic resistance genes allows for easy selection of recombinants through insertional inactivation.

903 / 1064

Category: Cleavage Patterns

903. (A) Type II restriction enzymes are widely used in genetic engineering because they cleave DNA at specific recognition sequences.
(R) Type I restriction enzymes have non-specific cleavage sites and are unsuitable for gene manipulation.

904 / 1064

Category: Recognition Sequences

904. (A) Type II restriction enzymes are the most commonly used in genetic engineering because they cut DNA at specific recognition sequences.
(R) Type II restriction enzymes produce sticky ends that facilitate the joining of DNA fragments from different sources.

905 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

905. (A) Type II restriction enzymes are used in gene manipulation studies because they cut DNA at specific palindromic sequences.
(R) The sticky ends produced by Type II restriction enzymes facilitate the joining of DNA fragments from different sources.

906 / 1064

Category: Discovery

906. (A) The discovery of restriction enzymes enabled precise cutting of DNA at specific sequences, revolutionizing genetic engineering.
(R) Restriction enzymes were initially discovered in bacteria as part of their defense mechanism against bacteriophages.

907 / 1064

Category: Restriction Enzymes (Molecular Scissors)

907. (A) $EcoRI$ is classified as a Type II restriction enzyme because it recognizes a specific palindromic DNA sequence and cleaves within or near that sequence.
(R) Type II restriction enzymes are commonly used in recombinant DNA technology as they produce predictable cleavage patterns.

908 / 1064

Category: This is one of the core sections of the chapter.

908. (A) Restriction enzymes are essential tools in genetic engineering as they can cut DNA at specific sites.
(R) Restriction enzymes recognize palindromic sequences in DNA and make cuts at these specific recognition sites.

909 / 1064

Category: Basic Tools of Genetic Engineering

909. (A) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific palindromic sequences.
(R) The recognition sites of restriction enzymes are palindromic because they read the same on both strands.

910 / 1064

Category: Liposome-mediated transfer

910. (A) Liposomes are prepared from phosphatidyl choline and stearylamine using reverse-phase evaporation.
(R) Reverse-phase evaporation ensures the entrapment of nucleic acid within liposomes, protecting it from nuclease degradation.

911 / 1064

Category: Gene gun (biolistic method)

911. (A) The gene gun method is particularly useful for transforming cereal crops.
(R) In the gene gun method, DNA-coated tungsten or gold particles are projected into intact cells to bypass the need for protoplast isolation.

912 / 1064

Category: Microinjection

912. (A) Microinjection is a direct method of introducing foreign DNA into host cells.
(R) It involves injecting DNA under pressure directly into the nucleus of the target cell using a fine glass microinjection needle.

913 / 1064

Category: Electroporation

913. (A) Electroporation uses high-voltage electrical pulses to create temporary pores in the plasma membrane of cells.
(R) The pores allow DNA or other materials to diffuse into the cells, which is essential for genetic transformation.

914 / 1064

Category: Calcium chloride treatment

914. (A) Treatment of bacterial cells with calcium chloride ($CaCl_2$) makes them competent to take up foreign DNA.
(R) Calcium chloride treatment creates transient pores in the cell wall, allowing DNA to enter the bacterial cell.

915 / 1064

Category: Methods to Make Cells Competent

915. (A) Bacterial cells are treated with divalent cations like calcium to make them competent for DNA uptake.
(R) Divalent cations increase the efficiency of DNA entry through pores in the bacterial cell wall.

916 / 1064

Category: Known genetics

916. (A) Restriction enzymes are called molecular scissors because they cut DNA at specific sequences.
(R) Restriction enzymes recognize and cleave DNA at highly conserved palindromic sequences.

917 / 1064

Category: Fast replication

917. (A) Denaturation in PCR involves heating the DNA to $94^\circ C$ to separate the two strands.
(R) High temperature breaks the hydrogen bonds between the complementary bases of DNA.

918 / 1064

Category: Easy to culture

918. (A) Bacteria are commonly used as host organisms in genetic engineering.
(R) Bacteria have simple growth requirements and multiply rapidly.

919 / 1064

Category: Competent Host (Microbial Host)

919. (A) Bacterial cells are treated with calcium ions at $0-5^\circ C$ to make them competent.
(R) Calcium ions create temporary pores in the cell wall, allowing DNA to enter.

920 / 1064

Category: Common Vectors Used

920. (A) Plasmids are commonly used as vectors in genetic engineering.
(R) Plasmids can replicate independently of the host chromosome and often carry antibiotic resistance genes.

921 / 1064

Category: YACs (Yeast artificial chromosomes)

921. (A) YACs can accommodate large DNA fragments up to 1 million bases.
(R) YACs contain telomeric, centromeric, and origin of replication sequences, making them efficient for eukaryotic gene transfer.

922 / 1064

Category: BACs (Bacterial artificial chromosomes)

922. (A) BACs are more stable than YACs for cloning large DNA fragments in $E. coli$.

(R) BACs have par A and par B sites ensuring proper segregation during cell division.

923 / 1064

Category: Types of Vectors

923. (A) Plasmids are commonly used as vectors in genetic engineering.
(R) Plasmids can replicate independently of the host chromosome and carry antibiotic resistance genes.

924 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

924. (A) An ideal vector must have multiple cloning sites to facilitate the insertion of foreign DNA.
(R) Multiple cloning sites allow for easier identification of recombinants through blue-white selection.

925 / 1064

Category: Cloning Vectors

925. (A) The origin of replication (ori) in a cloning vector allows it to replicate independently within the host cell.
(R) The ori sequence controls the copy number of the linked DNA.

926 / 1064

Category: Cleavage Patterns

926. (A) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific palindromic sequences.
(R) A palindrome in DNA is a sequence that reads the same on both strands when the orientation of reading is kept the same.

927 / 1064

Category: Recognition Sequences

927. (A) Eco RI cuts the DNA sequence $5'$ GAATTC $3'$ at specific recognition sites.
(R) Eco RI is a Type II restriction enzyme that recognizes palindrome sequences in DNA.

928 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

928. (A) Type II restriction enzymes are commonly used in genetic engineering.
(R) Type II restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific palindromic sequences.

929 / 1064

Category: Discovery

929. (A) Restriction enzymes are called molecular scissors because they cut DNA at specific sequences.
(R) They were first discovered in bacteria as a defense mechanism against bacteriophages.

930 / 1064

Category: Restriction Enzymes (Molecular Scissors)

930. (A) Type II restriction enzymes are used in gene manipulation studies.
(R) They recognize specific palindromic sequences and cleave DNA at defined sites.

931 / 1064

Category: This is one of the core sections of the chapter.

931. (A) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific palindromic sequences, producing sticky or blunt ends.
(R) DNA ligase joins the DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds between the sugar-phosphate backbones.

932 / 1064

Category: Basic Tools of Genetic Engineering

932. (A) Restriction enzymes are called molecular scissors because they cut DNA at specific sequences.
(R) Restriction enzymes recognize and cleave palindromic sequences in DNA.

933 / 1064

Category: By cloning.

933. (A) Heat shock treatment is essential for the successful transformation of recombinant DNA into bacterial host cells.
(R) The heat shock treatment increases the permeability of the cell membrane to facilitate the uptake of plasmid DNA.

934 / 1064

Category: Replacement of nuclei.

934. (A) In the replacement of nuclei technique, the enucleated egg must fully reprogram the somatic cell nucleus to initiate embryonic development.
(R) The success of nuclear transfer depends on the ability of the somatic cell nucleus to revert to a totipotent state.

935 / 1064

Category: Microinjection method.

935. (A) Microinjection is an efficient method for gene transfer in isolated protoplasts due to its high transformation efficiency.
(R) The technique uses a glass microinjection needle to deliver DNA directly into the nucleus under pressure.

936 / 1064

Category: Transformation of fertilized eggs or embry: os.

936. (A) The microinjection method is more efficient than virus-mediated gene transfer for producing stable transgenic animals.
(R) Unlike retroviruses, microinjected DNA integrates randomly into the host genome, potentially causing disruptions in essential genes.

937 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN ANIMALS

937. (A) Retroviruses are commonly used in genetic transformation of animal cells because they can integrate foreign genes into the host genome stably.
(R) Retroviruses cause minimal harm to host cells while ensuring efficient and stable expression of integrated foreign genes.

938 / 1064

Category: By cloning.

938. (A) The tumour inducing (Ti) plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used as a vector for cloning genes in animals.
(R) The Ti plasmid has the ability to integrate its DNA into the host genome and express foreign genes in eukaryotic cells.

939 / 1064

Category: Replacement of nuclei.

939. (A) The offspring produced through the replacement of nuclei technique is genetically identical to the donor organism.
(R) In this method, the enucleated egg receives a diploid nucleus from a somatic cell, which contains the complete genetic material of the donor.

940 / 1064

Category: Microinjection method.

940. (A) The microinjection method is highly efficient for introducing foreign genes into animal cells, particularly in early-stage embryos.
(R) The success of this technique depends on the precision of the injection and the ability of the injected DNA to integrate into the host genome.

941 / 1064

Category: Transformation of fertilized eggs or embry: os.

941. (A) Microinjection is the most commonly used method for genetic transformation in animals because it ensures high efficiency of DNA insertion into the nucleus.
(R) The microinjection technique involves injecting DNA directly into the nucleus of a cell using a glass needle, which minimizes damage to the cell and increases transformation success.

942 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN ANIMALS

942. (A) Retroviruses are commonly used in virus-mediated gene transfer because they integrate foreign genes efficiently into the host genome without harming the host cell.
(R) Retroviruses have the ability to reverse transcribe their RNA into DNA, which then integrates into the host genome.

943 / 1064

Category: By cloning.

943. (A) Gene cloning allows the isolation of a single copy of a gene and its amplification into multiple identical copies.
(R) The technique of gene cloning involves the use of restriction enzymes to cut DNA and ligation of the desired fragment into a vector for replication in a host organism.

944 / 1064

Category: Replacement of nuclei.

944. (A) In the replacement of nuclei technique, somatic cell nuclei are transferred into eggs after removing their haploid nuclei.
(R) This allows the production of offspring with the genetic complement of the donor.

945 / 1064

Category: Microinjection method.

945. (A) The microinjection method is commonly used for introducing foreign DNA directly into the nucleus of a cell.
(R) It ensures precise delivery of genetic material into target cells.

946 / 1064

Category: Transformation of fertilized eggs or embry: os.

946. (A) Microinjection is a commonly used method for genetic transformation in animals.
(R) In microinjection, DNA is injected into the nucleus of a cell using a glass microinjection needle.

947 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN ANIMALS

947. (A) Retroviruses are used in virus-mediated gene transfer because they integrate into the host genome stably.
(R) Retroviruses can carry foreign genes and express them efficiently without harming the host cell.

948 / 1064

Category: Reporter genes in transformation.

948. (A) The tetracycline resistance gene is a scoreable marker because it produces a visible color change in transformed cells.
(R) Scoreable markers are used to identify transformed cells through an enzymatic assay that generates a detectable product.

949 / 1064

Category: Virus mediated gene transfer.

949. (A) The Cauliflower Mosaic Virus (CaMV) is widely used in plant genetic engineering due to its high copy number of up to $10^6$ virions per cell.
(R) High copy numbers of the viral vector ensure uniform and strong expression of the foreign gene throughout the plant.

950 / 1064

Category: Ti plasmid as gene vectors

950. (A) The T-DNA region of the Ti plasmid integrates randomly into the host plant genome, leading to potential disruptions in essential genes.
(R) The vir genes of the Ti plasmid encode proteins that facilitate the precise insertion of T-DNA at specific loci in the plant genome.

951 / 1064

Category: Agrobacterium tumefaciens and T. rhizogenes.

951. (A) The tumour-inducing capacity of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is due to the presence of the Ti plasmid.
(R) The Ti plasmid contains the T-DNA region, which integrates into the plant genome and causes tumours by altering the hormonal balance of the plant cell.

952 / 1064

Category: vector dependent gene transfer,

952. (A) The T-DNA region of the Ti plasmid is essential for successful genetic transformation in plants because it integrates into the host genome.
(R) The T-DNA contains genes that are homologous to the plant genome, facilitating its stable integration.

953 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN PLANTS

953. (A) The use of $Ti$ plasmid from Agrobacterium tumefaciens is the most efficient method for genetic transformation in monocotyledonous plants.
(R) Monocots lack the necessary biochemical machinery to recognize and integrate $T-DNA$ from the $Ti$ plasmid into their genome.

954 / 1064

Category: Reporter genes in transformation.

954. (A) The tetracycline resistance gene inserted into $E. coli$ cells acts as a selectable marker by allowing only transformed cells to grow in the presence of tetracycline.
(R) Selectable markers like antibiotic resistance genes inhibit the growth of non-transformed cells, ensuring only transformed cells proliferate.

955 / 1064

Category: Virus mediated gene transfer.

955. (A) Cauliflower Mosaic Virus (CaMV) is an effective vector for dicotyledonous plants due to its ability to maintain high copy numbers of viral genomes in host cells.
(R) The systemic spread of CaMV ensures uniform expression of foreign genes throughout the plant, making it a suitable vector for genetic transformation.

956 / 1064

Category: Ti plasmid as gene vectors

956. (A) The Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is responsible for transferring the T-DNA into the plant genome, leading to genetic transformation.
(R) The 'vir' region of the Ti plasmid facilitates the transfer of T-DNA by producing proteins that recognize injured plant cells.

957 / 1064

Category: Agrobacterium tumefaciens and T. rhizogenes.

957. (A) Agrobacterium tumefaciens transfers a portion of its Ti plasmid into the plant genome during infection
(R) The vir region of the Ti plasmid is responsible for transferring T-DNA to the plant cell

958 / 1064

Category: vector dependent gene transfer,

958. (A) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is widely used as a vector for gene transfer in plants because its Ti plasmid can integrate foreign DNA into the plant genome.
(R) The T-DNA region of the Ti plasmid is transferred and stably integrated into the host plant genome, making it an effective tool for genetic transformation.

959 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN PLANTS

959. (A) $Agrobacterium\ tumefaciens$ is widely used for genetic transformation of dicotyledonous plants.
(R) The Ti plasmid of $Agrobacterium$ can integrate its T-DNA region into the plant genome.

960 / 1064

Category: Reporter genes in transformation.

960. (A) The $\beta$-glucuronidase (GUS) gene is a commonly used scoreable marker in genetic transformation.
(R) Scoreable markers like GUS allow visual identification of transformed tissues through enzymatic assays without harming the host plant.

961 / 1064

Category: Virus mediated gene transfer.

961. (A) Cauliflower mosaic virus (CaMV) is commonly used as a vector for gene transfer in dicotyledonous plants.
(R) The genome of CaMV consists of a small double-stranded circular DNA which can carry foreign genes and replicate in host plants.

962 / 1064

Category: Ti plasmid as gene vectors

962. (A) The Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used as a vector for transferring foreign genes into plant cells.
(R) The Ti plasmid contains the T-DNA region which integrates into the plant genome and facilitates genetic transformation.

963 / 1064

Category: Agrobacterium tumefaciens and T. rhizogenes.

963. (A) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used as a vector in plant genetic engineering.
(R) Agrobacterium tumefaciens contains Ti plasmid which can transfer T-DNA into the plant genome.

964 / 1064

Category: vector dependent gene transfer,

964. (A) The Ti plasmid is used in Agrobacterium-mediated genetic transformation of plants.
(R) The Ti plasmid contains T-DNA that integrates into the plant genome.

965 / 1064

Category: GENETIC TRANSFORMATION IN PLANTS

965. (A) The Ti plasmid in $Agrobacterium\ tumefaciens$ is primarily responsible for the transfer of T-DNA into plant cells.
(R) The T-DNA region of the Ti plasmid integrates into the host plant genome and induces tumor formation.

966 / 1064

Category: MORAL AND ETHICAL ISSUES OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

966. (A) Gene therapy should be strictly limited to curing genetic diseases to avoid ethical dilemmas related to trait enhancement.
(R) Using gene therapy for enhancing traits like intelligence could lead to social inequities and designer humans.

967 / 1064

Category: RISKS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

967. (A) The introduction of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) into the environment poses no risks because they are thoroughly tested before release.
(R) GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee) ensures the safety and validity of GMOs before they are introduced for public use.

968 / 1064

Category: APPLICATIONS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

968. (A) The use of DNA ligase in recombinant DNA technology ensures the stable integration of the gene of interest into the vector by forming phosphodiester bonds.
(R) DNA ligase is essential for joining the sticky ends of DNA fragments created by restriction enzymes, which enables the formation of recombinant DNA molecules.

969 / 1064

Category: Downstream processing.

969. (A) Chromatography is a vital technique in downstream processing because it allows high-resolution separation of biomolecules.
(R) Chromatography exploits differences in molecular size, charge, or affinity to purify the target product from a mixture.

970 / 1064

Category: Obtaining the foreign gen product

970. (A) The stirred-tank bioreactor is the most commonly used bioreactor for large-scale production of recombinant proteins due to its ability to provide optimal growth conditions.
(R) Stirred-tank bioreactors include systems for temperature control, pH control, and foam control, which are essential for maintaining high productivity in continuous culture systems.

971 / 1064

Category: Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell/organism

971. (A) Calcium chloride treatment is used to make bacterial cells competent for DNA uptake by creating transient pores in the membrane.
(R) Electroporation also creates temporary pores in the cell membrane but uses an electric pulse instead of chemicals.

972 / 1064

Category: Amplification of gene of interest usin g PCR (polymerase chain reaction). M

972. (A) Taq polymerase is essential for PCR because it remains active at the high temperatures required for DNA denaturation.
(R) Taq polymerase is derived from a thermophilic bacterium and does not denature at temperatures up to 95°C.

973 / 1064

Category: Isolation of the genetic material (DNA)

973. (A) Lysozyme is used to break down the peptidoglycan layer in bacterial cell walls during DNA isolation.
(R) The peptidoglycan layer forms a rigid structure that must be degraded to release the cellular contents, including DNA.

974 / 1064

Category: Cutting of DNA at specific locations.

974. (A) Restriction enzymes produce sticky ends that facilitate the insertion of a DNA fragment into a vector.

(R) Sticky ends have complementary overhangs that allow hydrogen bonding between the gene of interest and the vector.

975 / 1064

Category: PROCESSES OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

975. (A) Restriction enzymes are essential for cutting DNA at specific sequences, but DNA ligase is not strictly necessary for recombinant DNA technology.
(R) DNA ligase catalyzes the formation of phosphodiester bonds, which is crucial for joining DNA fragments to create recombinant DNA molecules.

976 / 1064

Category: CLONING

976. (A) A cDNA library contains both introns and exons of a gene.
(R) cDNA is synthesized from mRNA using reverse transcriptase, which does not include introns.

977 / 1064

Category: GENE LIBRARY

977. (A) A genomic library contains both introns and exons, whereas a cDNA library contains only exons.
(R) cDNA is synthesized from mRNA using reverse transcriptase, which does not include introns.

978 / 1064

Category: Small size.

978. (A) The small size of plasmid pBR322 (4,362 bp) allows it to be easily taken up by the host cell and enhances its stability during purification and manipulation.
(R) Smaller plasmids like pBR322 have higher transformation efficiency and are less prone to mechanical shearing due to their compact structure.

979 / 1064

Category: Cloning sites.

979. (A) The insertion of foreign DNA into the $BamHI$ site of pBR322 plasmid disrupts the $tet^R$ gene, leading to loss of tetracycline resistance.
(R) Disruption of the $tet^R$ gene occurs because the $BamHI$ restriction site is located within the coding sequence of the $tet^R$ gene.

980 / 1064

Category: Selectable marker.

980. (A) In the blue-white selection method, white colonies indicate the presence of recombinant DNA because the insertion disrupts the $\beta$-galactosidase activity.
(R) The $\text{lacZ}$ gene encodes $\beta$-galactosidase, which hydrolyzes X-gal to produce a blue pigment, and its disruption prevents this reaction.

981 / 1064

Category: Origin of replication (orl)

981. (A) The origin of replication (ori) in a plasmid determines its copy number within the host cell.
(R) Plasmids with high-copy-number ori sequences replicate more frequently than those with low-copy-number ori sequences due to differences in regulatory mechanisms.

982 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

982. (A) A vector with multiple cloning sites (MCS) is always preferred over a vector with a single cloning site for recombinant DNA technology.
(R) Multiple cloning sites allow the insertion of foreign DNA at various locations, but they complicate the selection process as each site may require a different selectable marker.

983 / 1064

Category: Cloning vectors.

983. (A) The presence of the lac Z gene in pUC vectors allows for blue-white selection of recombinant colonies.
(R) The lac Z gene encodes $\beta$-galactosidase, which hydrolyzes X-gal to produce a blue pigment, and its disruption by foreign DNA insertion results in white colonies.

984 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

984. (A) Type II restriction enzymes are exclusively used in recombinant DNA technology because they produce sticky ends.
(R) Sticky ends facilitate the ligation of diverse DNA segments by forming hydrogen bonds with complementary sequences.

985 / 1064

Category: Enzymes.

985. (A) Type II restriction enzymes are widely used in genetic engineering because they recognize and cleave DNA at specific palindromic sequences.
(R) Type I restriction enzymes are not useful for gene manipulation as their cleavage sites are non-specific.

986 / 1064

Category: TOOLS OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

986. (A) The enzyme $EcoRI$ cuts DNA at the sequence $GAATTC$ and produces blunt ends.
(R) Restriction enzymes recognize palindromic sequences and can produce either sticky or blunt ends depending on their cutting pattern.

987 / 1064

Category: MORAL AND ETHICAL ISSUES OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

987. (A) Prenatal genetic screening can lead to ethical concerns such as discrimination based on genetic predispositions.
(R) Knowledge of an individual's genetic information can be misused for denying employment or health insurance.

988 / 1064

Category: RISKS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

988. (A) The use of antibiotic resistance genes as markers in genetic engineering can lead to the spread of antibiotic resistance in pathogenic bacteria.
(R) Antibiotic resistance genes are often used as selectable markers to identify successfully transformed host cells.

989 / 1064

Category: APPLICATIONS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

989. (A) Somatic gene therapy involves introducing a functional gene into stem cells to correct genetic disorders.
(R) The first successful human gene therapy was used to treat severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) by transforming bone marrow stem cells with a transgene.

990 / 1064

Category: Downstream processing.

990. (A) The separation of biomass is the final step in downstream processing.

(R) The separation of biomass removes unwanted cellular debris before further purification steps.

991 / 1064

Category: Obtaining the foreign gen product

991. (A) A stirred-tank bioreactor is commonly used in large-scale production of recombinant proteins because it provides optimal conditions for cell growth and protein synthesis.
(R) The agitator system in a stirred-tank bioreactor ensures even mixing and adequate oxygen supply, which are essential for high yields of the desired protein.

992 / 1064

Category: Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell/organism

992. (A) Electroporation is a method used to introduce recombinant DNA into host cells by creating temporary pores in the cell membrane.
(R) A brief electric pulse increases the permeability of the cell membrane, allowing DNA to enter.

993 / 1064

Category: Amplification of gene of interest usin g PCR (polymerase chain reaction). M

993. (A) The denaturation step of PCR involves heating the DNA template to $94^\circ C$ for 20-30 seconds, which causes the separation of double-stranded DNA into single strands.
(R) The high temperature breaks the hydrogen bonds between complementary bases, leading to strand separation.

994 / 1064

Category: Isolation of the genetic material (DNA)

994. (A) Lysozyme is used for breaking down bacterial cell walls to release DNA.
(R) Lysozyme breaks the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls, which is essential for accessing DNA.

995 / 1064

Category: Cutting of DNA at specific locations.

995. (A) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific palindromic sequences.
(R) Restriction enzymes recognize and bind to inverted repeat sequences in DNA.

996 / 1064

Category: PROCESSES OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

996. (A) Restriction enzymes are essential for cutting DNA at specific sequences in recombinant DNA technology.
(R) Restriction enzymes protect bacterial cells by cleaving foreign DNA, thus preventing viral infections.

997 / 1064

Category: CLONING

997. (A) BACs and YACs are commonly used cloning vectors in genetic engineering.
(R) They contain selectable markers like the ampicillin resistance gene for easy identification of recombinants.

998 / 1064

Category: GENE LIBRARY

998. (A) A cDNA library represents the entire genome of an organism including both introns and exons.
(R) A cDNA library is prepared from mRNA, which includes only exonic sequences.

999 / 1064

Category: Small size.

999. (A) Plasmids are preferred as cloning vectors because they are small in size and can be easily manipulated.
(R) Small-sized vectors like plasmids are more stable during purification and minimize the risk of breakdown compared to large molecules.

1000 / 1064

Category: Cloning sites.

1000. (A) Insertion of foreign DNA at the $BamHI$ site in $pBR322$ vector inactivates the tetracycline resistance gene ($tet^R$).
(R) The $BamHI$ restriction site lies within the coding sequence of the $tet^R$ gene in $pBR322$.

1001 / 1064

Category: Selectable marker.

1001. (A) A selectable marker allows only transformed cells to grow on a medium containing an antibiotic, while non-transformants die.
(R) The selectable marker gene provides resistance to the host cell against the antibiotic used in the medium.

1002 / 1064

Category: Origin of replication (orl)

1002. (A) The $ori$ sequence in a plasmid vector is essential for the autonomous replication of recombinant DNA within host cells.
(R) The $ori$ sequence controls the copy number of the linked DNA and ensures independent replication.

1003 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

1003. (A) The presence of multiple cloning sites in a vector complicates gene cloning.
(R) More than one recognition site for restriction enzymes can generate several fragments, making it difficult to isolate the desired DNA insert.

1004 / 1064

Category: Cloning vectors.

1004. (A) The ampicillin resistance gene in pUC8 plasmid acts as a selectable marker.
(R) It helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants by permitting only the growth of transformants on ampicillin-containing medium.

1005 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

1005. (A) Type II restriction enzymes are widely used in recombinant DNA technology.
(R) Type II enzymes recognize specific palindromic sequences and cleave DNA at precise locations.

1006 / 1064

Category: Enzymes.

1006. (A) Type II restriction enzymes are commonly used in recombinant DNA technology because they cleave DNA at specific recognition sequences.
(R) Type II enzymes recognize and cut DNA at non-specific sites, making them ideal for gene manipulation.

1007 / 1064

Category: TOOLS OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

1007. (A) Restriction enzymes are essential for cutting DNA at specific palindromic sequences to create sticky or blunt ends.
(R) DNA ligase is required to join these cut DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds, enabling the formation of recombinant DNA molecules.

1008 / 1064

Category: MORAL AND ETHICAL ISSUES OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

1008. (A) Cloning humans is ethically acceptable because it can help in producing identical copies of individuals with desirable traits.
(R) Cloning humans raises moral concerns as it may lead to social problems, such as cloned babies being raised without parents.

1009 / 1064

Category: RISKS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

1009. (A) The use of genetic engineering can lead to social discrimination based on genetic information.
(R) Identification of genetic diseases in individuals can be misused for unethical purposes such as denial of employment or insurance.

1010 / 1064

Category: APPLICATIONS OF GENETIC ENGINEERING

1010. (A) Recombinant DNA technology can be used to produce human insulin in bacteria.
(R) Bacteria can express human genes when appropriate promoters and vectors are used.

1011 / 1064

Category: Downstream processing.

1011. (A) Downstream processing includes the purification of biotechnological products.
(R) Purification ensures that the final product meets regulatory standards and is free from contaminants.

1012 / 1064

Category: Obtaining the foreign gen product

1012. (A) Recombinant proteins can be produced in heterologous hosts.
(R) A heterologous host expresses the foreign gene inserted through recombinant DNA technology.

1013 / 1064

Category: Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell/organism

1013. (A) Bacterial cells can be made competent to take up foreign DNA by treating them with $Ca^{2+}$ ions.
(R) $Ca^{2+}$ ions create temporary pores in the cell membrane, allowing DNA to enter.

1014 / 1064

Category: Amplification of gene of interest usin g PCR (polymerase chain reaction). M

1014. (A) Taq polymerase is used in PCR because it is stable at high temperatures.
(R) The denaturation step in PCR involves heating the DNA to 94°C to separate the strands.

1015 / 1064

Category: Isolation of the genetic material (DNA)

1015. (A) Lysozyme is used to break down bacterial cell walls for DNA isolation.
(R) Lysozyme degrades peptidoglycan, a major component of bacterial cell walls.

1016 / 1064

Category: Cutting of DNA at specific locations.

1016. (A) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific palindromic sequences.
(R) The first restriction enzyme discovered was Hind II, isolated from *Haemophilus influenzae*.

1017 / 1064

Category: PROCESSES OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

1017. (A) Restriction enzymes like EcoRI cut DNA at specific sequences, producing sticky ends.
(R) DNA ligase joins the sticky ends of DNA fragments to form recombinant DNA.

1018 / 1064

Category: CLONING

1018. (A) Plasmids are commonly used as cloning vectors in recombinant DNA technology.
(R) Plasmids contain an origin of replication ($ori$) and selectable markers.

1019 / 1064

Category: GENE LIBRARY

1019. (A) A genomic library contains both introns and exons of DNA.
(R) cDNA library is prepared from mRNA and therefore lacks introns.

1020 / 1064

Category: Small size.

1020. (A) Small size of plasmids like pBR322 makes them suitable as cloning vectors.
(R) Small size enhances stability during purification and manipulation.

1021 / 1064

Category: Cloning sites.

1021. (A) The Bam HI site in pBR322 lies within the $tet^R$ gene.
(R) Insertion of foreign DNA at the Bam HI site inactivates the $tet^R$ gene.

1022 / 1064

Category: Selectable marker.

1022. (A) The selectable marker helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants while selectively permitting the growth of transformants.
(R) Selectable markers provide resistance to antibiotics, allowing only transformed cells to survive in a medium containing the antibiotic.

1023 / 1064

Category: Origin of replication (orl)

1023. (A) The origin of replication (ori) is essential for the replication of recombinant DNA within a host cell.
(R) The ori sequence allows the vector and inserted foreign DNA to replicate independently of the host chromosome.

1024 / 1064

Category: Features of an Ideal Vector

1024. (A) An ideal cloning vector must contain a selectable marker.
(R) Selectable markers help in identifying and eliminating non-transformants while permitting the growth of transformants.

1025 / 1064

Category: Cloning vectors.

1025. (A) Plasmids are commonly used as cloning vectors in recombinant DNA technology.
(R) Plasmids can replicate independently of the host chromosomal DNA and carry selectable markers.

1026 / 1064

Category: Types of Restriction Enzymes

1026. (A) Type II restriction enzymes are commonly used in gene manipulation studies.
(R) Type II enzymes recognize a specific palindromic sequence and cut DNA at precise locations.

1027 / 1064

Category: Enzymes.

1027. (A) Restriction enzymes are called molecular scissors because they cut DNA at specific sequences.
(R) Restriction enzymes recognize and cleave DNA at palindromic sequences.

1028 / 1064

Category: TOOLS OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

1028. (A) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific palindromic sequences.
(R) They recognize and bind to specific sequences, ensuring precise cutting.

1029 / 1064

Category: RECOMBINANT DNA (DNA) TECHNOLOGY [GENETIC ENGINEERING]

1029. (A) The use of restriction enzymes is essential for the creation of recombinant DNA because they cut DNA at specific sequences, allowing for precise insertion of foreign genes into vectors.
(R) Restriction enzymes recognize and cleave DNA at palindromic sequences, ensuring that the cuts are made at predictable and reproducible sites.

1030 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

1030. (A) Restriction enzymes are essential for genetic engineering as they enable the precise insertion of foreign DNA into vector molecules.
(R) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific palindromic sequences, generating sticky ends that facilitate the ligation of foreign DNA with vector DNA.

1031 / 1064

Category: RECOMBINANT DNA (DNA) TECHNOLOGY [GENETIC ENGINEERING]

1031. (A) Restriction enzymes are essential tools in recombinant DNA technology because they cut DNA at specific sequences.
(R) The discovery of restriction enzymes enabled the precise cutting and joining of DNA fragments from different sources to create recombinant DNA.

1032 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

1032. (A) Recombinant DNA technology involves the combination of foreign DNA with vector DNA to form chimeric DNA.
(R) Restriction enzymes are used to cut DNA at specific sequences, allowing the insertion of foreign genes into vectors.

1033 / 1064

Category: RECOMBINANT DNA (DNA) TECHNOLOGY [GENETIC ENGINEERING]

1033. (A) Recombinant DNA technology involves the combination of DNA from two different organisms.
(R) Restriction enzymes are used to cut DNA at specific sequences, enabling the creation of recombinant DNA.

1034 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

1034. (A) Restriction enzymes are used to cut DNA at specific sites.
(R) Restriction enzymes recognize and bind to specific nucleotide sequences in DNA.

1035 / 1064

Category: PRINCIPLES OF BIOTECHNOLOGY

1035. (A) Genetic engineering allows the transfer of genes between unrelated species due to the universality of the genetic code.
(R) The genetic code is nearly identical across all living organisms, making it possible to express foreign genes in a host organism.

1036 / 1064

Category: PRINCIPLES OF BIOTECHNOLOGY

1036. (A) Recombinant DNA technology allows the introduction of specific genes into host organisms without unwanted genes.
(R) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific sequences, enabling precise gene insertion.

1037 / 1064

Category: PRINCIPLES OF BIOTECHNOLOGY

1037. (A) Recombinant DNA technology involves the use of restriction enzymes to cut DNA at specific sequences.
(R) Restriction enzymes are molecular scissors that recognize and cleave DNA at particular sites.

1038 / 1064

Category: Maintenance of sterile (aseptic) conditions

1038. (A) UV radiation is used to sterilize the laminar airflow cabinet in biotechnological laboratories.
(R) UV radiation damages the DNA of microorganisms, preventing their replication and ensuring aseptic conditions.

1039 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

1039. (A) The use of restriction enzymes in recombinant DNA technology allows for the precise cutting of DNA at specific sequences, enabling the insertion of foreign genes into vectors.
(R) Restriction enzymes recognize and cleave DNA at palindromic sequences, producing sticky ends that facilitate the ligation of DNA fragments by DNA ligase.

1040 / 1064

Category: Core Principles

1040. (A) A cDNA library contains both introns and exons of the genome.
(R) cDNA is synthesized from mRNA using reverse transcriptase, which lacks introns.

1041 / 1064

Category: Genetic manipulations, recombinant DNA technology

1041. (A) The use of $HindIII$ as a restriction enzyme is crucial for cutting DNA at specific palindromic sequences because it recognizes and cleaves the sequence 5'-AAGCTT-3'.
(R) $HindIII$ creates sticky ends which are essential for the ligation of foreign DNA into vectors using DNA ligase.

1042 / 1064

Category: Fermentation, food preservation

1042. (A) Stirred-tank bioreactors are more efficient for oxygen-dependent microbial processes than airlift bioreactors.
(R) The stirrer in a stirred-tank bioreactor ensures uniform mixing and maintains homogeneous oxygen distribution throughout the culture medium.

1043 / 1064

Category: Traditional vs Modern Biotechnology

1043. (A) The production of human insulin in $Escherichia\ coli$ is an example of traditional biotechnology.
(R) Traditional biotechnology involves the use of genetically modified organisms to achieve large-scale production.

1044 / 1064

Category: Use of biological processes for human welfare

1044. (A) Genetic engineering involves altering the chemistry of genetic material to introduce it into host organisms.
(R) The primary goal of recombinant $DNA$ technology is to combine $DNA$ from two different sources to create chimeric molecules for industrial and medical applications.

1045 / 1064

Category: Technology using living organisms, enzymes, or biological systems

1045. (A) The use of restriction enzymes is essential for the creation of recombinant DNA molecules.
(R) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific sequences, allowing precise insertion of foreign DNA into a vector.

1046 / 1064

Category: Introduction to Biotechnology

1046. (A) The production of human insulin in Escherichia coli is possible because the genetic code is universal across species.
(R) Structural genes from one organism can function in another organism due to the similarity in the genetic code.

1047 / 1064

Category: Maintenance of sterile (aseptic) conditions

1047. (A) Autoclaving is necessary to maintain sterility in a biotech lab because it kills all microbes and spores.
(R) The high pressure and temperature in an autoclave denature microbial proteins and rupture cell membranes.

1048 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

1048. (A) Restriction enzymes are essential in genetic engineering for cutting DNA at specific sequences.
(R) They recognize and cleave DNA at specific palindromic sequences, enabling the creation of recombinant DNA.

1049 / 1064

Category: Core Principles

1049. (A) Recombinant DNA technology involves combining DNA from two different organisms to create a chimeric DNA molecule.
(R) Restriction enzymes and DNA ligase are essential tools for cutting and joining DNA fragments in genetic engineering.

1050 / 1064

Category: Genetic manipulations, recombinant DNA technology

1050. (A) The use of restriction enzymes is essential for creating recombinant DNA.
(R) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific sequences, allowing the insertion of foreign genes into vectors.

1051 / 1064

Category: Fermentation, food preservation

1051. (A) Fermentation is used in the production of yogurt because it converts lactose into lactic acid.
(R) Lactic acid produced during fermentation lowers the pH, inhibiting the growth of harmful bacteria.

1052 / 1064

Category: Traditional vs Modern Biotechnology

1052. (A) Traditional biotechnology involves the direct manipulation of genetic material.
(R) Genetic engineering is a key technique used in modern biotechnology.

1053 / 1064

Category: Use of biological processes for human welfare

1053. (A) Recombinant DNA technology involves combining $DNA$ from two different organisms to generate a new genetic combination.
(R) The process of recombinant DNA technology allows the production of human insulin using bacterial cells.

1054 / 1064

Category: Technology using living organisms, enzymes, or biological systems

1054. (A) Recombinant DNA technology involves the insertion of foreign genes into a vector to produce chimeric DNA.
(R) The use of restriction enzymes and DNA ligase enables the cutting and joining of DNA fragments, respectively.

1055 / 1064

Category: Introduction to Biotechnology

1055. (A) Restriction enzymes like $EcoRI$ are essential in genetic engineering because they can cut DNA at specific palindromic sequences.
(R) The recognition sequence of $EcoRI$ is a palindrome, which allows the enzyme to create sticky ends for gene cloning.

1056 / 1064

Category: Maintenance of sterile (aseptic) conditions

1056. (A) Autoclaving at $121^\circ C$ and 15 psi for 15-20 minutes ensures sterility by killing most microbes, including spores.
(R) High temperature and pressure in autoclaving denature proteins and disrupt cell membranes of microorganisms.

1057 / 1064

Category: Genetic Engineering

1057. (A) Restriction enzymes are used to cut DNA at specific sequences.
(R) Restriction enzymes are crucial in genetic engineering as they enable the isolation of desired genes.

1058 / 1064

Category: Core Principles

1058. (A) Recombinant DNA technology involves combining DNA from two different organisms.
(R) This technique is used to produce genetically modified organisms (GMOs).

1059 / 1064

Category: Genetic manipulations, recombinant DNA technology

1059. (A) Restriction enzymes are called molecular scissors because they cut DNA at specific sequences.
(R) $EcoRI$ is a restriction enzyme that recognizes and cuts the palindrome sequence GAATTC.

1060 / 1064

Category: Fermentation, food preservation

1060. (A) Fermentation helps in food preservation by producing acids or alcohol that inhibit spoilage microorganisms.
(R) Lactic acid fermentation converts pyruvate to lactic acid, which lowers the pH and prevents microbial growth.

1061 / 1064

Category: Traditional vs Modern Biotechnology

1061. (A) Traditional biotechnology relies on natural processes like fermentation.
(R) Fermentation uses genetically modified microorganisms to produce products.

1062 / 1064

Category: Use of biological processes for human welfare

1062. (A) Biotechnology involves the use of biological processes for human welfare.
(R) This is because biotechnology integrates natural science and organisms, cells, or molecular analogues to produce useful products and services.

1063 / 1064

Category: Technology using living organisms, enzymes, or biological systems

1063. (A) Biotechnology involves the use of genetically modified organisms (GMOs).
(R) GMOs are used to achieve large-scale production of biotechnological products like antibiotics and vaccines.

1064 / 1064

Category: Introduction to Biotechnology

1064. (A) Genetic engineering allows the manipulation of DNA to change its structure and function.
(R) The genetic code is similar in all species, enabling the transfer of genes across organisms.

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